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Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. Rock paintings, which could be four to six thousand years old, have been discovered in a pre-historic cave in the Berinag sub-division of Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district, an Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) official said.Eleven human figures, both men and women, can be seen in the cave paintings, the official said.“The rock paintings seem over four to six thousand years old like the ones first discovered in the Lakhu Udiyar pre-historic caves near Almora in the year 1965,” regional archaeological officer in Almora, Chandra Singh Chauhan said.This is the first cave with rock paintings to be found in the Pithoragarh district, he said.“Nine such caves in Almora, one in Nainital and three in Garhwal region have been found earlier. They bear testimony to the presence of humans in the Himalayan region in pre-historic times,” Chauhan said.Chauhan said he has received pictures of the rock paintings in the newly discovered cave and will soon visit it to gather more information about them. The cave and the paintings on its walls were discovered by Tarun Mehra, a young adventure tourism entrepreneur.During a rock climbing expedition, Mehra and his team saw a tunnel-like structure and went inside it out of curiosity.“When we went inside the cave after discovering it on a hill near PG college Berinag, we were surprised to see rock paintings on its walls in various colours,” Mehra said.A cup mark has also been spotted some 20 feet up the hill, he said. A wild animal has also been depicted below the paintings of the 11 humans on the wall, Mehra said.“Presence of wide space inside the cave also indicates that it was used by pre-historic human groups as their habitation”, he said.

1)

The passage is mainly about:

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 the prehistoric human beings in Himalayan regions

B)

the discovery of prehistoric rock paintings in a cave in Pithoragarh

C)

the caves found in Almora, Nainital and Garhwal regions

D)

 the rock- climbing expedition of Tarun Mehra

2)

Where were the first caves found with paintings in Uttarakhand?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 Pithoragarh

B)

 Almora

C)

 Nainital

D)

 Garhwal

3)

Identify the option that arranges the following events in the correct sequence.
a. Finding a tunnel.
b. Discovering a cup mark on the hill
c. Exploring the cave
d. Climbing the rocks near the PG College, Berinag
e. Discovering the colourful rock paintings

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 d c b a e

B)

 a c e d b

C)

 b d c e a

D)

 d a c e b

4)

What shows that the cave discovered in Pithoragarh was also used as living space by prehistoric human groups?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

The paintings of human beings

B)

A cup mark

C)

 The presence of wide space in the cave

D)

 The presence of rock paintings in the cave

5)

Which of the following is NOT a part of the paintings found in the cave in Pithoragarh?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 Male figures

B)

 Wild animal

C)

 Female figures

D)

 Cup mark

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.In 1600, the East India Company acquired a charter from the ruler of England, Queen Elizabeth I, granting it the sole right to trade with the East. This meant that no other trading group in England could compete with the East India Company. With this charter, the Company could venture across the oceans, looking for new lands from which it could buy goods at a cheap price and carry them back to Europe to sell at higher prices.The Company did not have to fear competition from other English trading companies. Mercantile trading companies in those days made profit primarily by excluding competition, so that they could buy cheap and sell dear. The royal charter, however, could not prevent other European powers from entering the Eastern markets. By the time the first English ships sailed down the west coast of Africa, round the Cape of Good Hope, and crossed the Indian Ocean, the Portuguese had already established their presence in the western coast of India, and had their base in Goa. In fact, it was Vasco da Gama, a Portuguese explorer, who had discovered this sea route to India in 1498. By the early seventeenth century, the Dutch too were exploring the possibilities of trade in the Indian Ocean. Soon the French traders arrived on the scene.The problem was that all the companies were interested in buying the same things. The fine qualities of cotton and silk produced in India had a big market in Europe. Pepper, cloves, cardamom and cinnamon too were in great demand. Competition amongst the European companies inevitably pushed up the prices at which these goods could be purchased, and thisreduced the profits that could be earned. The only way the trading companies could flourish was by eliminating rival competitors. The urge to secure markets, therefore, led to fierce battles between the trading companies.

6)

Which Europeans came first to India to trade?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

The Dutch

B)

The Portuguese

C)

The French

D)

The English

7)

This passage is mainly about:

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

the trading mechanism of the foreign companies

B)

the coming of East India Company to India

C)

the elimination of rivals by different companies

D)

the discovery of India by Vasco da Gama

8)

What did East India Company do in India to exclude competition with other European companies?
A. Fought fierce battles with them.
B. Bought goods at higher prices than them.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

Both A and B are false

B)

A is true and B is false.

C)

Both A and B are true

D)

B is true and A is false

9)

The charter of ‘the sole right to trade with the East’ meant for the East India Company that:

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

the East India Company could trade in certain specified goods only in the East

B)

among the English companies, only East India Company could trade in the East

C)

no other European company except for the East India Company could trade in the East

D)

other English companies could trade in the East along with the East India Company

10)

How did Mercantile companies make profit in the 17th century?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

They traded with the East.

B)

They fought wars with other companies.

C)

They eliminated competition to buy cheap goods and sell them at higher prices.

D)

They discovered new countries to trade with.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.I had four notes of introduction in London: to Dr. PJ Mehta, to Sjt. Dalpatram Shukla, to Prince Ranjit Singhji and to Dadabhai Naoroji. Someone on board had advised us to put up at the Victoria Hotel in London. Sjt Mazmudar and I accordingly went there. Dr. Mehta, to whom I had wired from Southampton, called at about eight o'clock the same evening. He gave me a hearty greeting. As we were talking, I casually picked up his top-hat, and trying to see how smooth it was, passed my hand over it the wrong way and disturbed the fur. Dr. Mehta looked somewhat angrily at what I was doing and stopped me. But the mischief had been done. The incident was a warning for the future. This was my first lesson in European etiquette, into the details of which Dr. Mehta humorously initiated me. “Do not touch other people's things,” he said. “Do not ask questions as we usually do in India on first acquaintance; do not talk loudly; never address people as ‘sir’ whilst speaking to them as we do in India; only servants and subordinates address their masters that way.” And so on and so forth. He also told me that it was very expensive to live in a hotel and recommended that I should live with a private family. We deferred consideration of the matter until Monday.Sjt. Mazmudar and I found the hotel to be a trying affair. It was also very expensive. There was, however, a Sindhi fellow-passenger from Malta who had become friends with Sjt. Mazmudar, and as he was not a stranger to London, he offered to find rooms for us. We agreed, and on Monday, as soon as we got our baggage, we paid up our bills and went to the rooms rented for us by the Sindhi friend. I remember my hotel bill came to £3, an amount which shocked me. And I had practically starved in spite of this heavy bill! For I could relish nothing. When I did not like one thing, I asked for another, but had to pay for both just the same. The fact is that all this while I had depended on the provisions which I had brought with me from Bombay.

11)

Who initiated the author in European manners?

, Avg: 00:25 , 83% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

Dr. PJ Mehta

B)

Dadabhai Naoroji

C)

Sjt Majumdar

D)

Sjt. Dalpatram Shukla

12)

How did the Author survive during his first days in London?

, Avg: 00:37 , 71% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

He used the food he had brought from Bombay.

B)

He got food from friends.

C)

He ordered and ate food at the hotel.

D)

He ate at Indian restaurants.

13)

Why did Dr. Mehta get a little irritated with the author?

, Avg: 00:29 , 50% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

He was late in coming to meet him.

B)

He was talking too loudly.

C)

He asked irrelevant questions.

D)

He touched his hat the wrong way.

14)

After reading the above passage it can be inferred that it is an extract from:

, Avg: 00:17 , 30% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

a travelogue

B)

an article

C)

a biography

D)

an autobiography

15)

The main theme of the passage is:

, Avg: 00:06 , 40% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

expensive hotel stay in London

B)

appreciating European etiquette

C)

craving for home food in foreign land

D)

the author’s early days in London

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. Rivers in the heart of the Amazon rainforest in Brazil fell to their lowest levels in over a century on Monday as a record drought upends the lives of hundreds of thousands of people and damages the jungle ecosystem.The port of Manaus, the region’s most populous city, at the meeting of the Rio Negro and the Amazon River, recorded 13.59 metres (44.6 feet) of water on Monday, compared to 17.60 a year ago, according to its website. That is the lowest level since records began in 121 years ago in 1902, passing a previous all-time low set in 2010.Rapidly drying tributaries to the mighty Amazon have left boats stranded, cutting off food and water supplies to remote villages, while high water temperatures are suspected of killing more than 100 endangered river dolphins.Some areas of the Amazon have seen the least rain from July to September since 1980, according to the Brazilian government disaster alert centre, Cemaden.Brazil’s Science Ministry blames the drought on the onset of the El Niño climate phenomenon this year, which is driving extreme weather patterns globally. In a statement earlier this month, the ministry said it expects the drought will last until at least December, when El Niño’s effects are forecast to peak.Underlying El Niño is the long-term trend of global warming, which is leading to more frequent and more intense extreme weather events, like drought and heat.The drought has affected 481,000 people as of Monday, according to the civil defense agency in the state of Amazonas, where Manaus is located.Late last week, workers from Brazilian NGO Fundação Amazônia Sustentável fanned out across the parched region near Manaus to deliver food and supplies to vulnerable villages. The drought has threatened their access to food, drinking water and medicines, which are usually transported by river.

16)

The passage is mainly about:

, Avg: 00:21 , 100% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 the El Niño climate phenomenon

B)

 the lives of people living in the rainforest of Amazon

C)

 the worst drought conditions in Amazon rainforest area

D)

 the damage to the jungle’s ecosystem

17)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 00:32 , 100% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 High water temperatures are suspected of killing more than 100 endangered river dolphins.

B)

 Food, drinking water and medicines are delivered to remote villages of the rainforest region by boats.

C)

Port of Manaus is the most populated city of the Amazon rainforest region.

D)

 On Monday, the lowest water level since 1902 in the Amazon river was recorded at 17.60 metres.

18)

Identify the option that arranges the following in the correct sequence.
A. Boats stranded
B. Tributaries dried
C. Food and water supply to remote villages cut off
D. Very less rain in the Amazon region

, Avg: 01:38 , 100% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 DACB

B)

 BDAC

C)

 ABCD

D)

 DBAC

19)

After reading the given passage, it can be inferred that it is:

, Avg: 00:18 , 100% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 a scientific report

B)

 a survey report

C)

 a news report

D)

 a research report

20)

“workers from Brazilian NGO Fundação Amazônia Sustentável fanned out across the parched region”. Here ‘fanned out’ means:

, Avg: 00:47 , 100% SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 found fans in the area

B)

 distributed fans

C)

 cooled the area with fans

D)

 spread apart in the area

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. New Delhi : Forty-two per cent of children in the age group of 14 to 18 years in rural India cannot read easy sentences in English, while more than half of them struggle with simple division problems, according to the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023 released on Wednesday.The ASER 2023 'Beyond Basics' survey was conducted in 28 districts across 26 states, reaching a total of 34,745 youths in the age group 14-18 years. One rural district was surveyed in each major state. The annual report published by the Pratham Foundation found that more than half of the students in the 14-18 age group struggle with division problems.About 25 per cent of this age group still cannot read a Class 2 level text fluently in their regional language. More than half struggle with division (3-digit by 1-digit) problems. Only 43.3 per cent of 14-18-year olds are able to do such problems correctly. This skill is usually expected in class 3 and 4.ASER reports are also used by the government while formulating policies. Across enrollment categories, females (76 per cent) do better than males (70.9 per cent) in reading a Class 2 level text in their regional language. In contrast, males do better than their female counterparts in arithmetic and English reading. The report says that around 45 per cent of the students surveyed could calculate the number of hours a child had slept based on the time she went to bed at night and woke up in the morning.In another everyday task of measuring an object with a scale, 85 per cent of those surveyed could calculate the length of an object correctly if it was placed at the '0' mark on the ruler. But, when the object was moved and placed elsewhere on the ruler, less than 40 per cent could give the right answer. Two-thirds of the surveyed youths (65.1 per cent) were able to read functional instructions on a packet of ORS solution, the report said.According to the report, low levels of foundational numeracy affect the ability of youth in tackling everyday calculations where they need to apply measurement or use the unitary method in practical situations, or even do simple financial computations (managing a budget, applying a discount or calculating interest rates or repayment of a loan).

21)

Which of the following is better done by girls than boys, according to the passage?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 Reading simple English sentences

B)

 Calculating arithmetical problems

C)

 Reading a Class 2 level text in their regional language

D)

Carrying out a simple division sum

22)

According to ASER 2023, how much percentage of 14-18 year olds could divide a three-digit number by a one-digit number correctly?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 43.3 per cent

B)

 45 per cent

C)

 25 per cent

D)

 65.1 per cent

23)

The survey was conducted mainly to know:

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 the simple calculation skills of boys and girls

B)

 the level of foundational numeracy among the youth

C)

 the reading abilities of Class 3 to 4 children

D)

 the reading level and numeracy abilities of 14-18 year olds

24)

How many youths could calculate the length of an object correctly if it was placed at the '0' mark on the ruler?

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 45 per cent

B)

 76 per cent

C)

 40 per cent

D)

 85 per cent

25)

The given passage is:

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

 the executive summary of the Annual Status of Education Report

B)

 a survey report on rural districts

C)

 a news report about an educational survey

D)

 a press release by Pratham Foundation

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.Located 10 miles off Scotland’s north-eastern coast, the Orkney islands are a treasure trove of history. When I visited one of Orkney’s famous prehistoric (1)____, the Maeshowe tomb, my first impression was of an unremarkable green mound (2)______ by a ditch.Despite its appearance, this 5,000-year-old (3)____ place is actually a masterpiece of (4)_______ design and engineering, and a testament (5)______ the skill of Orkney’s prehistoric residents. That’s because, (6)______ around three weeks either side of the winter solstice (which takes (7)______ on 21 or 22 December each year), visitors have the chance to see something truly magical (8)_____ here.During this time of year, the narrow passage into the (9)______ becomes more than just an entrance: it was deliberately designed (10)______ with the setting of the midwinter sun. Just as the last rays start to disappear – which is at around 15:10 at this deepest, darkest time of midwinter – a shaft of light creeps down the passageway, slips across the floor of the tomb and illuminates the back wall like a golden, glowing doorway to another world.

26)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 10.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

aligned

B)

align

C)

aligning

D)

to align

27)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 9.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

grave

B)

memorial

C)

tomb

D)

graveyard

28)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 8.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

perform

B)

arise

C)

occur

D)

retire

29)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 7.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

abode

B)

place

C)

home

D)

room

30)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 6.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

in

B)

with

C)

about

D)

for

31)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 5.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

to

B)

by

C)

on

D)

at

32)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 4.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

antiquated

B)

historical

C)

chronological

D)

ancient

33)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 3.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

burying

B)

buried

C)

burial

D)

burry

34)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 2.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

surrounding

B)

surround

C)

surrounds

D)

surrounded 

35)

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank No. 1.

SSC CPO Mains 2024
A)

sites

B)

seats

C)

sights

D)

scenes

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.Algae are photosynthetic creatures that have pigments that aid in photosynthesis, such as chlorophyll. They do not, however, have the actual stems, roots or leaves found in vascular plants. While some of them have many cells, others are unicellular. They might establish colonies as well. The majority of algae are aquatic. Some are terrestrial, and they can be found on rocks, trees and moist soil. Certain algae species coexist well with other living things. For instance, lichens are a symbiotic relationship between green (and often blue-green) algae and fungi. Algae are members of a multiphyletic group. This indicates that there is no common ancestor and that the species in this category are not necessarily closely related. They do not have other morphoanatomical characteristics typical of vascular plants, but they do have one thing in common: they are eukaryotes with the principal pigment being chlorophyll, which allows them to perform photosynthesis. Phycology is the scientific name for the study of algae. The blue-green algae is one example of a reference. But some sources do not classify them as algae because they are prokaryotes.

36)

According to the passage, which is the main pigment in algae for photosynthesis?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Xanthophyll

B)

Melanin

C)

Carotenoid

D)

Chlorophyll

37)

Which statement accurately describes vascular plants based on the information in the passage?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Algae and vascular plants share the same morphoanatomical characteristics.

B)

Vascular plants are unicellular in structure.

C)

Vascular plants have true stems, roots and leaves, unlike algae.

D)

Vascular plants lack stems, roots and leaves.

38)

What is the central theme of the passage?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

The prokaryotic nature of blue-green algae

B)

The diversity and characteristics of algae

C)

The symbiotic relationship between algae and fungi

D)

The anatomy of vascular plants

39)

What does the term 'multiphyletic group' mean in the context of algae?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Having a common ancestor

B)

No common ancestor, not closely related

C)

Being closely related species

D)

Having diverse morphoanatomical characteristics

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.The French Revolution is a revolutionary movement that occurred in France between 1787 and 1799 and reached to its (1)______ in 1789. This revolution had many causes but the most important of all was (2)______ of bourgeoisie, who were merchants, manufacturers and professionals. The peasants, many of them landowners, wanted to get rid of the practices of absolute monarchy and feudalism. Another factor was an increase in population due to decreased mortality rates. It was followed by economic predicament and minor revolts were common. This led to a clarion call for social reforms. Intellectuals like Rene Descartes wrote about new things about political, social and economic matters. A fundamental political and societal change was to occur. The French Revolution played a critical role in shaping modern nations by showing the world the power inherent in the will of the people.

40)

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Inherent’.

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Natural

B)

Borrowed

C)

Artificial

D)

Incited

41)

What is the meaning of the phrase ‘a clarion call’ in the passage?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Declaration of war

B)

Beginning of a new phase

C)

A strongly expressed demand

D)

A call for forces

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent Indian nationalist leader, was convinced that India could not achieve independence without the use of force, and he believed that a military campaign was necessary to achieve this goal. In 1942, Bose formed the Indian National Army (INA) with the help of the Japanese.Bose travelled to Japan in 1941 to seek their support in the struggle against British rule in India. The Japanese were interested in having Bose’s help in their own efforts to expand their influence in Southeast Asia. Bose’s vision was to create a military force to fight against the British in India with the help of Japanese weapons and training. The INA was formed in Singapore in September 1942 with the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ (Victory to India). The INA consisted of soldiers who were primarily from the Indian community in Southeast Asia. They were trained by Japanese officers and were equipped with Japanese weapons. The INA fought alongside Japanese forces in Burma and other parts of Southeast Asia during World War II. Bose’s leadership of the INA and his military campaigns against the British in India made him a popular figure among many Indians. The consequences of the formation of the INA were significant. The INA’s campaigns against the British in India and the Indian soldiers’ role in the Burma campaign had a psychological impact on the British forces. The British were shocked that Indian soldiers had turned against them, undermining their confidence in maintaining control over India. The INA also had a significant impact on the Indian independence movement. Bose’s vision of a socialist India with equal rights for all citizens inspired many Indians. The INA became a symbol of the struggle against British colonialism, and Bose’s slogan of ‘Jai Hind’ became a rallying cry for the independence movement.However, the INA’s military campaigns were not successful in achieving their goal of freeing India from British rule. The INA suffered significant losses in battles, and their efforts were undermined by the Japanese surrender in 1945.

42)

What was the primary reason for the Japanese to support Subhas Chandra Bose and the formation of the INA?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

They believed in Bose’s vision of a communist India.

B)

They were looking for allies in their fight against the British Empire.

C)

They believed in India’s right to self-determination.

D)

They wanted to expand their influence in Southeast Asia.

43)

What was the significance of Bose’s slogan ‘Jai Hind’?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

It manifests the vision of selected communities.

B)

It represented Bose’s vision of a capitalist India.

C)

It was a call to arms for the Indian and British Army.

D)

It symbolised the struggle against British colonialism.

44)

How did Subhas Chandra Bose view India’s fight for independence?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Through non-violent means

B)

Through military campaigns

C)

Through economic sanctions

D)

Through political negotiations

45)

What ultimately undermined the INA’s efforts to free India from British rule?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Gandhi’s death

B)

The inferior military tactics of the British forces

C)

The lack of support from the Indian and British people

D)

The Japanese surrender in 1945

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.Reading is an important communication skill that has many benefits and it has great impact on a person's life. We should develop a reading habit as it allows us to learn new information and gives us access to a wide range of opportunities and ideas. So, reading regularly not only broadens our aspect and knowledge but also improves our intelligence, perspective, judgement and understanding of the world. It helps to stimulate creativity and imagination, to relieve the stress and pressure, and to provide a source of entertainment. The major benefit of reading is to develop the analytical and critical skills of a reader. The former involves gathering information and breaking it down into parts for better understanding, while the latter involves evaluating the same information and making judgments based on evidence. Reading a book or any content improves our language and vocabulary, so we can easily comprehend the words and their use in the context. It also helps in cognitive development in young children so at the primary level, children are more involved in reading rather than writing.

46)

Which skill is used by a reader when he gathers information and breaks it down in a logical pattern to solve a problem?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Speaking skill

B)

Critical skill

C)

Analytical skill

D)

Reasoning skill

47)

Cognitive development in a child is related to:

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

environmental development

B)

social development

C)

mental development

D)

technical development

48)

Which skill is used by a reader when he evaluates the same information and makes judgments based on evidence?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Critical skill

B)

Analytical skill

C)

Drawing skill

D)

Technical skill

49)

According to the passage, what is the role of reading?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

To make environment healthy

B)

To not to share information

C)

To give strength to the body

D)

To learn new information to avail opportunity

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.Engaging in regular physical activity is not only beneficial for physical well-being but also has a profound impact on mental health. Studies have shown that exercise releases endorphins, chemicals in the brain that act as natural painkillers and mood elevators. Additionally, consistent exercise has been linked to reduced symptoms of anxiety and depression. Contrary to common misconceptions, it doesn't require intense workouts; even moderate activities like walking or yoga can contribute to improved mental well-being. Making exercise a regular part of one's routine not only supports physical fitness but also nurtures a positive and resilient mindset.

50)

Determine the tone of the passage by choosing the option that reflects the overall emotional quality of the writing.

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Humorous

B)

Dramatic

C)

Critical

D)

Informative

51)

Which of the following is a fact mentioned in the passage?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Exercise releases endorphins, contributing to improved mental well-being.

B)

Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits.

C)

Regular exercise has no impact on mental health.

D)

Only intense physical activities are linked to reduced anxiety and depression.

52)

Select the most appropriate title for the given passage.

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

The Impact of Technology on Health

B)

The Importance of a Balanced Diet

C)

Importance of Regular Physical Activities

D)

The Benefits of Mindfulness Meditation

53)

Select the option that provides an accurate summary of the main points discussed in the passage.

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Engaging in regular physical activity positively impacts mental health by releasing endorphins and reducing symptoms of anxiety and depression.

B)

Exercise requires intense workouts for mental health benefits.

C)

Exercise only impacts physical well-being, not mental health.

D)

The passage discusses the negative effects of technology on health.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.The extraction of indigo dye involves harvesting the small, green leaves of the Indigofera plant before its flowers bloom. These leaves undergo a process of soaking in water and churning until a navy blue froth is released. The upper portion of the resulting mixture is drained for irrigation, while the leaves are repurposed as fertilizer. After allowing the water and fine sediment to settle for a day, the liquid is separated from the sediment. The obtained deep blue paste is then subjected to filtration to remove dirt and impurities, followed by compression into cakes and drying for several days. Once dried, the indigo is ready for use as a dye. Lime (Ca(OH)₂) can be added to the initial water and leaves mixture, and various natural sugars can be dissolved into the paste to enhance the extraction process.

54)

In the extraction process described, what is the purpose of allowing the water and fine sediment at the bottom of the tank to settle for a day?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

To create a unique texture in the final indigo paste

B)

To facilitate the separation of liquid from sediment

C)

To promote the growth of additional indigo leaves

D)

To enhance the aroma of the indigo dye

55)

What is the central theme of the passage describing the extraction process of indigo dye from the Indigofera plant?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

The intricate process of harvesting and processing indigo leaves

B)

The various uses of indigo dye in different industries

C)

The impact of lime and natural sugars on the indigo extraction process

D)

The cultivation and growth cycle of the Indigofera plant

56)

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word 'impurities' from the options given below.

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

cleanliness

B)

pureness

C)

purity

D)

scum

57)

What is the overall tone of the passage?

SSC CGL Mains 2024
A)

Critical and analytical

B)

Emotional and sentimental

C)

Informative and instructional

D)

Humorous and light-hearted

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Western MP has received 1,335.4 millimetres of average rainfall from June 1 to September 25, 58% more than the region’s historical normal of 845.3 mm for this period. However, the real story lies in the month-wise figures. In June, the opening month of the southwest monsoon season, the rains were actually 25.6% below the long-period average. In July, they were 31.2% above average. That surplus rose to 63.6% in August, while a whopping 158% more, so far in September.
The monsoon has taken its toll mainly on soyabean. According to the Union agriculture ministry’s data, a total area of 113.449 lakh hectares (lh) has been planted under this leguminous oilseed in the current kharif season, with the bulk of it accounted for by MP (55.16 lh), Maharashtra (39.595 lh) and Rajasthan (10.608 lh). Within MP, the main soybean growing districts are Ujjain, Dewas, Indore, Dhar, Ratlam, Mandsaur, Rajgarh, Shajapur, Sehore and Vidisha. The crop in low-lying areas is the one that has been worst affected.
“Farmers who had sown early-maturity (80-90 days duration) varieties such as JS 9560 and JS 2034 just after mid-June will take the biggest hit. Their crop would already have matured; the longer it remains in the field, the more the chances of the grain rotting. Also, these farmers will not be able to save this grain for using as seed next year,” admits V S Bhatia, director of the Indian Institute of Soyabean Research at Indore.
On the other hand, longer-duration varieties maturing in 95-105 days, like JS 20-69, NRC 86 and JS 97-52, are unlikely to suffer major yield loss, as their grain is not fully ripe yet for harvesting. Moreover, since the rains were poor in June, much of sowing anyway took place in July, thereby further reducing the likelihood of damage. “The vegetative growth and pod formation has been very good. As of now, the overall loss may be 10-15% and the areas where the crop is still good should compensate for those badly impacted,” adds Bhatia. 

58)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

The longer-duration variety of soybean will not suffer much due to this excessive rain.

B)

The rainfall in June was poor in MP.

C)

In July, the rainfall was 63.6% above average.

D)

The crops in low-lying areas were worst affected by rains.

59)

Why would the farmers who sowed their crop in June be the worst hit?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Their crop would already be mature and could rot in the rain.

B)

They sowed their crop in low lying areas.

C)

When they sowed their crop there wasn’t enough rain.

D)

They had sowed a late maturing variety of soyabean.

60)

This passage is mainly about:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

the rainfall from June to September in MP

B)

the varieties of soybean grown in MP

C)

the impact of rain on the soybean crop in MP

D)

the growth of soybean in MP

61)

In which month, according to the passage, has the rainfall been the maximum?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

June

B)

July

C)

August

D)

September

62)

Which of the following is a short-duration variety of soybean maturing in 80-90 days?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

JS 97-52

B)

NRC 86

C)

JS 9560

D)

JS 20-69

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


First, thousands of flamingos coloured the Talawe wetlands near NRI Complex in Navi Mumbai pink during the lockdown, their numbers bolstered by the sheer lack of human activity. Now, the water in part of the wetland itself has turned pink, probably due to an explosive blooming of red algae that thrives in saline water, especially as the summer picks up and the wetland loses water.
The deep pink water, located towards the south-eastern end of the wetland, was spotted on 14 May 2020. The pink water was not there till late last week. The bloom has been identified as a rare and first-of-its-kind occurrence for Mumbai Metropolitan Region by Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) that plans to take samples of the water for study. However, a local resident, Seema Tania from NRI Complex, Seawoods, said she had spotted the pink wash across a much larger area at the same creek in 2016.“Almost 500-600m patch of the creek turned bright pink and we thought chemicals had been dumped in the creek,” she said.
BNHS and independent microbiologists presume that the colour is from microscopic algae. “Owing to high salinity in the area, it looks like an algal bloom. Our researchers have never witnessed something like this along Mumbai’s creeks,” said Deepak Apte, director, BNHS. “Around the world, such a phenomena has been observed regularly with red algae but it has to be investigated how it has appeared along the Mumbai creek.”
Flamingos are known to feed on this algae, crustaceans, shrimp, and aquatic plants, which gives them the pink colour, said Apte. Dr P Sathiyaselvam, assistant director (wetland conservation), BNHS said, “This is clearly an algal bloom. We have observed the same at the northern portion of Chilika Lake (in Odisha) during early winter months over the years, and also towards the northern end of wetlands in Thoothukudi in Tamil Nadu.” “This is a natural phenomenon. Vigorous growth of algae or bacteria having beta-carotene gives this type of characteristic colouration to the water. It is also related to increased evaporation, salinity, and the current hot and humid weather conditions,” said Rahul Khot, assistant director (in-charge of the flamingo monitoring program). 
Ornithologist, naturalist and writer Sunjoy Monga said a similar discolouration of water with a pink hue was witnessed at a flamingo habitat in Porbandar in May 2007. “This happened at the edges of the creek cramped with flamingos with high salinity displaying a pinkish maroon wash to it.” A similar example of what has been observed in Navi Mumbai was recently witnessed across a massive stretch at the Edgars Creek in Melbourne, Australia, that started on 10 Mayand intensified subsequently. The source of the pink water is being investigated, the Epoch Times reported. Other examples of changing water colour to pink across a much larger area has been observed at Cameron Falls in Waterton Lakes National Park, Canada and the Dead Sea, a salt lake between Israel and Jordan, to name a few. 

63)

After reading the passage, it can be inferred that the:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

phenomenon of algal bloom is unique to Mumbai

B)

water in Talawe wetland turned pink because of flamingos

C)

scientists are unaware of the occurrence ofred algae bloom

D)

source of pink water at Edgar’s creek has not yet been determined

64)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

The phenomenon of pink water has been seen in Chilika lake, Odisha and Thoothukudi in Tamil Nadu also.

B)

Similar phenomenon was recently witnessed across a massive stretch at the Edgars Creek in Melbourne, Australia.

C)

Similar discolouration of water with a pink hue was witnessed at a flamingo habitat in Porbandar in May 2007.

D)

The phenomenon of pink water has occurred in Mumbai wetland for the first time.

65)

The main theme of the passage is:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

where the phenomenon of pink water occurs in the world

B)

why the water in some parts of Mumbai wetland has turned pink

C)

how the flamingos get their pink colour

D)

what the flamingos feed on

66)

The explanation for the pink water, as given by most scientists, is that it is due to:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

the chemicals dumped in the creek

B)

highly humid and hot weather conditions

C)

an explosion of red algae blooming in the saline water

D)

shrimps, crustaceans and some aquatic plants

67)

Which of the following individuals thinks that the presence of beta-carotene in the algae gives the water its pink colour?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Dr. P Sathiyaselvam

B)

Deepak Apte

C)

Sunjoy Monga

D)

Rahul Khot

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Panchen Lama was just six years old when he was allegedly abducted by the Chinese government on 17 May 1995, along with his family members, after he was recognised by the Dalai Lama as the reincarnation of the 10th Panchen Lama.
On the 25th anniversary of his disappearance, the Tibetan government-in-exile on Sunday demanded China to release the 11th Panchen Lama Gedhun Choekyi Nyima, considered to be a reincarnation of Bodhisattva Amitabha.
In a statement issue here, the President of the exiled government, Lobsang Sangay, said China’s abduction of the Panchen Lama and forcible denial of his religious identity and the right to practice in his monastery is not only a violation of religious freedom but also a gross violation of human rights.
After orchestrating the disappearance of the 11th Panchen Lama, Sangay alleged that China, a self-declared atheist government and infamous for its persecution of religious groups, placed a young boy, Gyaltsen Norbu, as their own 11th Panchen Lama.
“This politically-motivated action failed, however, to displace the position of the true Panchen Lama from the hearts and minds of the Tibetan people. For Tibetans and Buddhists around the world, Gedhun Choekyi Nyima will always be the true Panchen Lama,” he added. 
Today marks the 25th anniversary of the 11th Panchen Lama’s disappearance, said Sangay, adding that 25 years is a significant time in an individual’s life. 
He said the communist government must honour its claim of ethnic harmony in China by fulfilling the aspirations of the Tibetan people.
“It must right the wrong and release the 11th Panchen Lama along with his family, Chadrel Rinpoche, and all Tibetans unjustly imprisoned,” he said while appealing to the international community to make a concerted effort to press China to release Nyima and resolve the critical human rights situation in Tibet. 

68)

What is the demand of the Tibetan Government-in-exile?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

China should release the 11th Panchen Lama along with his family.

B)

China should place Gyaltsen Norbu as the 11th Panchen Lama.

C)

China should celebrate the 25th anniversary of the 11th Panchen Lama’s disappearance.

D)

China should recognise Panchen Lama as the reincarnation of Bodhisattva.

69)

Select the option which is NOT true:
The abduction of Panchen Lama and his family by China is an act of:

, Avg: 01:41 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

establishing ethnic harmony

B)

persecution of a religious group

C)

violation of religious freedom of Tibetans

D)

gross violation of human rights

70)

“This politically-motivated action failed.” Which action is being referred to here?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Persecution of religious groups by the Chinese government

B)

Placing of Gyaltsen Norbu as the 11th Panchen Lama by China

C)

Abduction of Panchen Lama along with his family

D)

Imprisonment of Chadrel Rinpoche and other Tibetans

71)

After reading this passage, it can be inferred that it is:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

an appeal

B)

a government statement

C)

an article

D)

a news item

72)

What is the real name of the Panchen Lama imprisoned by China?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Gedhun Choekyi Nyima

B)

Bodhisattva Amitabha

C)

Gyaltsen Norbu

D)

Lobsang Sangay

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Love of power is, perhaps, an even stronger motive than fear in enticing nations to pursue irrational policies. Although individual boastfulness is considered to be bad manners, national boastfulness is admired at any rate, by the compatriots of those who practise it. Throughout history, great nations have been led to disaster by unwillingness to admit that their power had limits. World conquest has been a will-o’-the-wisp by which one nation after another has been led to its downfall. Hitler’s Germany is the most recent example. Going backwards in time, we find many other examples, of which Napoleon, Genghis Khan, and Attila are the most noteworthy. When Khrushchev threatens to obliterate the West, I am reminded of past examples of a similar folly.
To spread ruin, misery and death throughout one’s own country as well as that of the enemy is the act of madmen. If East and West could cease their enmity, they could devote their scientific skill to their own welfare, to living without the burden of fear that only their own folly has caused. For it is in the hearts of men that the evil lies. The trouble lies in the minds often, and it is in enlightening the minds of men that the cure must be sought.
There are those who say: ‘War is part of human nature, and human nature cannot be changed. If war means the end of man, we must sigh and submit.’ This is always said by those whose sigh is hypocritical. It is undeniable that there are men and nations to whom violence is attractive, but it is not the case that anything in human nature makes it impossible to restrain such men and nations. Individuals who have a taste for homicide are restrained by the criminal law, and most of us do not find life intolerable because we are not allowed to commit murders. The same is true of nations. Sweden has never been at war since 1814.
None of the Swedes that I have known has shown any sign of suffering from thwarted instinct for lack of war. Political contests in a civilized country often raise just the kind of issues that would lead to war if they were between different nations. Not long ago, private disputes were often settled by duels, and those who upheld duelling maintained that its abolition would be contrary to human nature. They forgot, as present upholders of war forget, that what is called ‘human nature’ is, in the main, the result of custom and tradition and education, and, in civilized men, only a very tiny fraction is due to primitive instinct. If the world could live for a few generations without war, war would come to seem as absurd as duelling has come to seem to us.

73)

Many countries have been led to their downfall because their leaders:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

have not accepted that their powers have limits

B)

have not been very capable

C)

have boasted of their scientific skills

D)

have under-estimated their power

74)

Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Homicidal tendencies of people can be restrained by criminal laws.

B)

If nations could forget their enmity they could live in peace without fear.

C)

As far as war is concerned, the trouble lies in the minds of men.

D)

War cannot be eradicated from the world because it is in human nature.

75)

In this passage the author:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

explains that by nature man is fond of war

B)

doesn’t think that there is any element in human nature that cannot be curbed

C)

suggests that man’s instinct for fighting can find expression in duels

D)

thinks that man’s nature is unchangeable

76)

According to the passage, war would seem absurd to us if:

SSC CPO 2021
A)

we have political contests among nations

B)

we could live without fighting wars for a few years

C)

we impose limitations on the people through law

D)

we settle our disputes by organising duels

77)

Match the words with their closest meanings.
a. obliterate 1. fraudulent
b. entice 2.eradicate
c. hypocritical 3. lure

, Avg: 00:56 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

a - 3, b - 2, c - 1

B)

a - 1, b - 3, c - 2

C)

a - 2, b - 1, c - 3

D)

a - 2, b - 3, c - 1

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


A book by the Indian ambassador in the Netherlands highlights the historical and current exchanges that define the relationship between the two countries. The first book in which Malayalam appears in print is the ‘Hortus Malabaricus’ (Garden of Malabar), a 12-volume treatise, written in Latin and published in Amsterdam from 1678 to1693. Compiled over a period of 30 years, under directions from Hendrik van Rheede, a naturalist and colonial administrator, who was at the time the governor of Dutch Malabar, the Hortus Malabaricus gives a comprehensive account of the flora of the Malabar region, along with their properties and detailed sketches. Malayalam appears in this multilingual book, along with other languages that were common currency at the time, including Arabic and Konkani.
The Hortus Malabaricus was an important document of its time, as Venu Rajamony writes in his new book ‘India and the Netherlands: Past, Present and Future’, “the product of a multinational and multicultural team of botanical experts.” Yet, it remained lost to the public until a botany scholar from Calicut, KS Manilal, learned Latin and translated it first into English in 2003 and into Malayalam in 2008. Highlighting such instances of the Indo-Dutch artistic and cultural exchange through the last 400 years was the prime reason why Rajamony, who has been the Ambassador of India to the Netherlands, thought of writing this book. The book was released on 30 September 2019.
The connection between India and the Netherlands begins with the Dutch Golden Age, when the latter was a flourishing centre for commercial and artistic endeavours. Following Spain, Portugal and Great Britain, it also emerged as one of the great maritime nations of the world, establishing a far-flung empire thanks to the ventures of the Dutch East India Company. Over the course of his research for the book, Rajamony says, one of the things that surprised him was how taken the great Dutch master Rembrandt was with Indian miniature paintings, collecting them and even making drawings inspired by them. “I was pleasantly surprised to discover this as Rembrandt is considered an absolute master, who would only have made originals. It is very rare that a master like him would copy other artworks,” says Rajamony. According to him, this fact is indicative of the high esteem in which Indian art was held in Europe. 

78)

“it also emerged as one of the great maritime nations of the world.” Here the word ‘it’ refers
to:

, Avg: 00:24 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Spain

B)

Portugal

C)

The Netherlands

D)

India

79)

The passage is mainly about:

, Avg: 00:16 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

the treatise ‘Hortus Malabaricus’ published in the Netherlands

B)

the book written by the Indian ambassador

C)

the historical relationship between India and the Netherlands

D)

Rajamony, the Indian ambassador to the Netherlands

80)

What inspired Rajamony to write his new book ‘India and the Netherlands: Past, Present and Future’?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

The rule of the Dutch East India Company over Malabar in the 17th century.

B)

His being the ambassador of India to the Netherlands.

C)

Instances of the Indo-Dutch artistic and cultural exchange through the last 400 years.

D)

The fact that ‘Hortus Malabaricus’ remained lost to the world for almost three centuries.

81)

Which of the following about Rembrant greatly surprised Rajamony and also made him happy?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

That Rembrandt, considered as the master, copied the Indian miniature paintings

B)

That Rembrandt was a great Dutch artist

C)

That Rembrandt had inspired the Indian miniature paintings

D)

That Rembrandt collected Indian miniature paintings

82)

Which statement is NOT true about ‘Hortus Malabaricus’?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

It is a 12-volume treatise, written in Latin.

B)

Many languages like Malayalam, Konkani and Arabic appear in the book.

C)

It gives a comprehensive account of the life in the Malabar region.

D)

It was a product of a multinational and multicultural team of botanical experts.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


My grandmother and I were good friends. My parents left me with her when they went to live in the city and we were constantly together. She used to wake me up in the morning and get me ready for school. She said her morning prayer in a monotonous sing-song while she bathed and dressed me in the hope that I would listen and get to know it by heart; I listened because I loved her voice but never bothered to learn it. Then she would fetch my wooden slate which she had already washed and plastered with yellow chalk, a tiny earthen ink-pot and a red pen, tie them all in a bundle and hand it to me. After a breakfast of a thick, stale chapatti with a little butter and sugar spread on it, we went to school. She carried several stale chapattis with her for the village dogs.
My grandmother always went to school with me because the school was attached to the temple. The priest taught us the alphabet and the morning prayer. While the children sat in rows on either side of the verandah singing the alphabet or the prayer in a chorus, my grandmother sat inside reading the scriptures. When we had both finished, we would walk back together. This time the village dogs would meet us at the temple door. They followed us to our home growling and fighting with each other for the chapattis we threw to them. When my parents were comfortably settled in the city, they sent for us. That was a turning-point in our friendship. Although we shared the same room, my grandmother no longer came to school with me. I used to go to an English school in a motor bus. There were no dogs in the streets and she took to feeding sparrows in the courtyard of our city house. As the years rolled by we saw less of each other. For some time she continued to wake me up and get me ready for school. When I came back she would ask me what the teacher had taught me. I would tell her English words and little things of western science and learning, the law of gravity, Archimedes’ Principle, the world being round, etc. This made her unhappy. She could not help me with my lessons. She did not believe in the things they taught at the English school and was distressed that there was no teaching about God and the scriptures. 

83)

What does the narrator refer to as the ‘turning point’?

SSC CPO 2021
A)

Grandmother feeding sparrows

B)

Going to an English school

C)

Learning western science

D)

He and his grandmother shifting to the city

84)

What kind of woman was the grandmother?

, Avg: 00:05 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Illiterate

B)

Modern

C)

Self-centred

D)

Religious

85)

Why did the grandmother accompany her grandson to school every day?

, Avg: 00:12 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

To keep him safe from stray dogs

B)

To read scriptures in the temple while he studied

C)

To spend more time with him

D)

To ensure he wouldn’t run away to play in the streets

86)

Grandmother sang the morning prayer in a monotonous tone so that:

, Avg: 00:12 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

her melodious voice echoed in the house

B)

her grandson would learn it too

C)

her grandson would wake up with the sound

D)

her children would return home soon

87)

Why did grandmother carry stale chapattis with her?

, Avg: 02:55 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

To feed the stray dogs

B)

To serve as her lunch

C)

To feed her grandson

D)

To give away to poor people

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


Vasco Da Gama was the first European to find an ocean trading route to India. He accomplished what many explorers before him could not do. His discovery of this sea route helped the Portuguese establish a long-lasting colonial empire in Asia and Africa. The new ocean route around Africa allowed Portuguese sailors to avoid the Arab trading hold in the Mediterranean and Middle East. Vasco da Gama opened a new world of riches by opening up an Indian Ocean route. His voyage and explorations helped change the world for Europeans. Vasco da Gama’s maritime career was during the period when Portugal was searching for a trade route around Africa to India. The Ottoman Empire controlled almost all European trade routes to Asia. This meant they could, and did, charge high prices for ships passing through ports. When Manuel I became King of Portugal in 1495, he continued efforts to open a trade route to India by going around Africa. Although other people were considered for the job, Manuel I finally chose 37-year-old Vasco da Gama for this task.
On 8 July 1497, Vasco da Gama sailed from Lisbon with a fleet of four ships and a crew of 170 men. Da Gama commanded the Sao Gabriel. Paulo da Gama – brother to Vasco – commanded the São Rafael, a three mast ship. They sailed past the Canary Islands, and reached the Cape Verde islands and then continued sailing, though storms still delayed them for a while. They rounded the cape of Good Hope on 22 November and anchored at Mossel Bay, South Africa. They began sailing again and continued until they reached the Rio dos Bons Sinais (River of Good Omens). Here they erected a statue in the name of Portugal. They stayed here for a month because much of the crew were sick from scurvy – a disease caused by lack of Vitamin C. Da Gama’s fleet eventually began sailing again. Finally, on 20 May 1498 they reached India. They headed for Kappad, near the large city of Calicut. In Calicut, da Gama met with the king. But the king of Calicut was not impressed with da Gama, and the gifts he brought as offering. They spent several months trading in India, and studying their customs. They left India at the end of August. 

88)

Why did Vasco da Gama’s crew stay at Rio dos Bons Sinais for a month?

, Avg: 00:12 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

To erect a statue in the name of Portugal

B)

Several crew members were suffering from scurvy.

C)

There were severe storms in the area.

D)

It was an auspicious place.

89)

From where did Vasco da Gama embark upon his journey?

, Avg: 00:14 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Mossel Bay

B)

Canary Islands

C)

Lisbon

D)

Cape of Good Hope

90)

Who controlled the European trade routes to Asia before 1497?

, Avg: 00:41 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Manuel I

B)

King of Calicut

C)

Ottoman Empire

D)

Paulo da Gama

91)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 00:22 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Vasco da Gama was the commander of the ship, Sao Gabriel

B)

Scurvy is caused by deficiency of vitamin C.

C)

Vasco da Gama impressed the King of Calicut with his gifts.

D)

Sao Rafael was a ship with three masts.

92)

In which month did Vasco da Gama’s ship reach the Cape of Good Hope?

, Avg: 03:06 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

May

B)

July

C)

November

D)

August

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


The methods of embalming, or treating the dead body, that the ancient Egyptians used is called ‘mummification’. Using special processes, the Egyptians removed all moisture from the body, leaving only a dried form that would not easily decay. It was important in their religion to preserve the dead body in as life-like a manner as possible.
The mummification process took seventy days. Special priests worked as embalmers, treating and wrapping the body. Beyond knowing the correct rituals and prayers to be performed at various stages, the priests also needed a detailed knowledge of human anatomy. The first step in the process was the removal of all internal parts that might decay rapidly. The brain was removed by carefully inserting special hooked instruments up through the nostrils in order to pull out bits of brain tissue. The embalmers then removed the organs of the abdomen and chest through a cut usually made on the left side of the abdomen. They left only the heart in place, believing it to be the center of a person's being and intelligence. The other organs were preserved separately, with the stomach, liver, lungs and intestines placed in special boxes or jars, today called ‘canopic jars’. These were buried with the mummy.
The embalmers next removed all moisture from the body. This they did by covering the body with ‘natron’, a type of salt which has great drying properties, and by placing additional natron packets inside the body. When the body had dried out completely, embalmers removed the internal packets and lightly washed the natron off the body. The result was a very dried-out but recognizable human form. To make the mummy seem even more life-like, sunken areas of the body were filled out with linen and other materials and false eyes were added. Next the wrapping began. Each mummy needed hundreds of yards of linen. The priests carefully wound the long strips of linen around the body, sometimes even wrapping each finger and toe separately before wrapping the entire hand or foot. In order to protect the dead from mishap in after life, amulets were placed among the wrappings and prayers and magical words written on some of the linen strips. Often the priests placed a mask of the person's face between the layers of head bandages. At last, the priests wrapped the final cloth or shroud in place and secured it with linen strips. The mummy was complete. It was then placed in the tomb along with food, furniture, vessels, perfumes, jewels and other things required in the afterlife.

93)

Hooked instruments were inserted through the nostrils to extract the:

, Avg: 00:09 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

lungs

B)

brain

C)

heart

D)

liver

94)

Which of the following was NOT buried with the mummies?

, Avg: 01:10 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Amulets

B)

Canopic jars

C)

Perfumes

D)

Embalmers

95)

Why was the knowledge of anatomy important for the priests?

, Avg: 00:10 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

To remove internal organs from the body

B)

To place natron packets in the body

C)

To wrap each part of the body

D)

To delay the decay of the body for seventy days

96)

What was the initial step in the process of mummification?

, Avg: 00:16 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Placing a face mask between the head bandages

B)

Wrapping the body with strips of linen

C)

Completely drying the body

D)

Removal of the internal parts

97)

Mummification was done to:

, Avg: 03:28 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

study the cause of death

B)

preserve dead bodies in a life-like manner

C)

perform rituals and prayers

D)

test the drying properties of natron

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


When Tao Ying rides on the bus alone, quite often she does not bother to buy a ticket. Why should she? Without her, the bus would still be stopping at every stop, a driver and a conductor would still have to be employed, and the same amount of petrol used. Clearly Tao Ying has to be astute. When the bus conductor looked like the responsible type, she would buy a ticket as soon as she got on board. But if he appeared to be casual and careless, she would not dream of paying, considering it a small punishment for him and a little saving for herself.
Today she is with her son Xiao Ye. She follows him onto the bus. As the doors shut her jacket is caught, ballooning up like a tent behind her. She twists this way and that, finally wrenching herself free. ‘Mama, tickets!’ Xiao Ye says. Children are often more conscious of rituals than adults. Without a ticket in his hand, the ride doesn’t count as a proper ride. On the peeling paint of the door somebody has painted the shape of a pale finger. It points at a number: 1.10 m. Between Xiao Ye ’s round head and the tip of the painted digit setting out the height requirement for a ticket rests the beautiful slender fingers of Tao Ying. ‘Xiao Ye, you are not quite tall enough, still one centimetre away,’ she tells him softly.
‘Mama! I’m tall enough, I’m tall enough!’ Xiao Ye shouts at the top of his voice, stamping on the floor as if it were a tin drum. ‘You told me the last time I could have a ticket the next time, this is the next time. You don’t keep your word!’ He looks up at his mother angrily. Tao Ying looks down at her son. A ticket costs twenty cents. Twenty cents is not to be scoffed at. It can buy a cucumber, two tomatoes or, at a reduced price, three bunches of radishes or enough spinach to last four days. But Xiao Ye’s face is raised up like a half-open blossom, waiting to receive his promise from the sun. She says, ‘Two tickets, please.’ The fierce conductor has beady eyes. ‘This child is one centimetre short of requiring a ticket.’
Xiao Ye shrinks, not just one but several centimetres— the need for a ticket has all of a sudden become interwoven with the pride of a small child. To be able to purchase self-esteem with twenty cents is something that can only happen in childhood and certainly no mother can resist an opportunity to make her son happy. ‘I would like to buy two tickets,’ she says politely. 

98)

Xiao Ye was eager to buy a bus ticket because he:

, Avg: 01:39 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

had saved money for it

B)

wanted to feel like a grown-up

C)

had grown taller than 1.10 m

D)

was very responsible

99)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 00:20 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Tao Ying was travelling with her son.

B)

Twenty cents was a sum that mattered to Tao Ying.

C)

Tao Ying boarded the bus after her son.

D)

Tao Ying actually needed to buy two tickets.

100)

“Xiao Ye shrinks, not just one but several centimetres” – Why?

, Avg: 00:41 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

He feels humiliated and hurt

B)

He is angry with the conductor

C)

He feels happy at his achievement

D)

He feels proud of his height

101)

Why does Tao Ying buy two tickets?

, Avg: 00:09 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

To spite the conductor

B)

To make her son happy

C)

To make up for the times when she didn’t buy a ticket.

D)

To show off her wealth

102)

For the child, the ticket was a symbol of:

, Avg: 03:25 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

self-esteem

B)

courage

C)

freedom

D)

determination

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


The term ‘dietary fibres’ refers collectively to indigestible carbohydrates present in plant foods. The importance of these dietary fibres came into the picture when it was observed that the people taking a diet rich in these fibres had low incidence of coronary heart disease, irritable bowel syndrome, dental caries and gall stones. The foodstuffs rich in these dietary fibres are cereals and grains, legumes, fruits with seeds, citrus fruits, carrots, cabbage, green leafy vegetables, apples, melons, peaches, pears etc. These dietary fibres are not digested by the enzymes of the stomach and the small intestine. They have the property of holding water and because of it, these get swollen and behave like a sponge as these pass through the gastrointestinal tract. The fibres add bulk to the diet and increase transit time in the gut and decrease the time of release of ingested food in the colon. These fibres hold water so the stools are soft, bulky and readily eliminated.
In recent years, it has been considered essential to have some amount of fibres in the diet. Their beneficial effects lie in preventing heart disease and decreasing cholesterol level. The fibres like gum and pectin are reported to decrease post prandial (after meals) glucose level in blood. They are also recommended for the management of certain types of diabetes. The fibres increase motility of the small intestine and the colon and so there is less time for exposure of the mucosa to harmful toxic substances. Therefore, there is a less desire to eat and the energy intake can be maintained within the range of requirement. This phenomenon helps in keeping a check on obesity. The dietary fibres may have some adverse effects on nutrition by binding some trace metals like calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, zinc and others and therefore preventing their proper absorption. This may pose a possibility of nutritional deficiency especially when diets contain marginal levels of mineral elements. This may put constraints on increasing dietary fibres. It is suggested that an intake of 40 gram dietary fibres per day is desirable. 

103)

What is the theme of the passage?

, Avg: 00:14 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Benefits of a balanced diet

B)

Sources of dietary fibres

C)

Functioning of intestines

D)

Importance of dietary fibres

104)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 03:02 , 50% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Dietary fibres help in regulating glucose levels in the body.

B)

Dietary fibres help in preventing heart disease.

C)

Dietary fibres help in relieving constipation.

D)

Dietary fibres help in absorption of trace metals.

105)

Which of the following is NOT rich in dietary fibres?

, Avg: 01:05 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Glucose

B)

Cereals

C)

Citrus fruits

D)

Leafy vegetables

106)

What are dietary fibres?

, Avg: 00:18 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

Ingested food in the colon

B)

Indigestible carbohydrates in plant foods

C)

Enzymes present in the stomach

D)

Easily digestible healthy food

107)

The dietary fibres behave like a sponge because they:

, Avg: 02:30 , 100% SSC CPO 2021
A)

can absorb water and swell up

B)

prevent the absorption of trace metals

C)

increase the motility of the small intestine

D)

reduce the craving for food

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


Early written symbols were based on pictographs (pictures which resemble what they signify) and ideograms (symbols which represent ideas). Ancient Sumerian, Egyptian, and Chinese civilizations began to adapt such symbols to represent concepts, developing them into logographic writing systems. Pictographs are still in use as the main medium of written communication in some non-literate cultures in Africa, the Americas, and Oceania. Pictographs are often used as simple, pictorial, representational symbols by most contemporary cultures.
Pictographs can be considered an art form, or can be considered a written language and are designated as such in Pre-Columbian art, Native American art, Ancient Mesopotamia and Painting in the Americas before Colonization. One example of many is the Rock art of the Chumash people, part of the Native American history of California.
An early modern example of the extensive use of pictographs may be seen in the map in the London suburban timetables of the London and North Eastern Railway, 1936-1947, designed by George Dow, in which a variety of pictographs was used to indicate facilities available near each station. Pictographs remain in common use today, serving as pictorial, representational signs, instructions, or statistical diagrams. Because of their graphical nature and fairly realistic style, they are widely used to indicate public toilets, or places such as airports and train stations. Because they are a concise way to communicate a concept to people who speak many different languages, pictograms have also been used extensively at the Olympics
since 1964 Summer Olympics, and are redesigned for each set of games.
Pictographs can often transcend languages in that they can communicate to speakers of a number of tongues and language families equally effectively, even if the languages and cultures are completely different. This is why road signs and similar pictographic material are often applied as global standards expected to be understood by nearly all.
A standard set of pictographs was defined in the international standard ISO 7001: Public Information Symbols. Other common sets of pictographs are the laundry symbols used on clothing tags and the chemical hazard symbols as standardised by the GHS system.
Pictograms have been popularised in use on the web and in software, better known as ‘icons’ displayed on a computer screen in order to help users navigate a computer system or mobile device.

108)

Pictographs are used in Olympic games because:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

they can transcend languages and convey information effectively

B)

they can help to navigate computer systems

C)

they are the main medium of written communication

D)

they can be redesigned for each set of games

109)

Which of the following statements is NOT true ?

, Avg: 00:40 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

Ideograms are symbols which represent ideas.

B)

George Dow used pictographs to represent facilities near each train station.

C)

Rock art of Chumash people is part of Mesopotamian history.

D)

Pictographs are widely used to depict road signs.

110)

Which of the following is an early example of use of pictographs in modern times?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

London railway timetable

B)

Chemical hazard symbols

C)

Logographic writing system

D)

Icons on a computer screen

111)

What is the passage mainly about ?

, Avg: 00:14 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

Use of pictographs in ancient and modern times

B)

The origin of pictographs

C)

Limitations of pictographs

D)

Pictographs as an art form

112)

Early civilizations used symbols to represent:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

art

B)

facilities

C)

culture

D)

concepts

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.


During the decade after liberalisation floriculture industries took giant steps in the export arena. This era has seen a dynamic shift from sustenance production to commercial production. The area under floriculture production in India is around 249 thousand hectares with a production of 1659 thousand tonnes loose flowers and 484 thousand tonnes cut flowers. Floriculture is now commercially cultivated in several states with Tamil Nadu (20%), Karnataka (13.5%) West Bengal (12.2%) having gone ahead of other producing states like Madhya Pradesh, Mizoram, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Haryana, Assam and Chhattisgarh. 
Government of India has identified floriculture as a sunrise industry and accorded it 100% export oriented status. Owing to steady increase in the demand of flowers, floriculture has become one of the important commercial trades in agriculture. Hence commercial floriculture has emerged as hi-tech activity-taking place under controlled climatic conditions inside greenhouse. Floriculture in India, is being viewed as a high growth industry. Commercial floriculture is becoming important from the export angle. The liberalisation of industrial and trade policies paved the way for development of export-oriented production of cut flowers.
The new seed policy had already made it feasible to import planting material of international varieties. It has been found that commercial floriculture has higher potential per unit area than most of the field crops and is therefore a lucrative business. Indian floriculture industry has been shifting from traditional flowers to cut flowers for export purposes. The liberalised economy has given an impetus to the Indian entrepreneurs for establishing export oriented floriculture units under controlled climatic conditions.
Indian floriculture industry comprises of flowers such as Rose, Tuberose, Glads, Anthurium, Carnations, Marigold etc. India's total export of floriculture was ₹571.38 crores/$81.94 million in 2018-19. The major importing countries were United States, Netherlands, United Kingdom, Germany and United Arab Emirates. There are more than 300 export-oriented units in India. More than 50% of the floriculture units are based in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. With the technical
collaborations from foreign companies, the Indian floriculture industry is poised to increase its share in world trade.

113)

What gave a major fillip to the export of Indian floriculture products?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

The new policy to ease the import of seeds of international varieties.

B)

The liberalisation of industrial and trade policies by the government.

C)

The demand from many countries like the US, the UK, and UAE.

D)

The use of technology in cultivating flowers inside greenhouses.

114)

Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

More than 50% of the floriculture units are based in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

B)

Floriculture has been accorded a 100% export status by the Government.

C)

India's total export of floriculture was $571.38 million in 2018-19.

D)

Floriculture has been identified as a sunrise industry by the Government of India.

115)

The area under floriculture production in India is about:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

484 thousand hectares

B)

249 thousand hectares

C)

571 thousand hectares

D)

1659 thousand hectares

116)

The main theme of the passage is:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

commercialisation of floriculture

B)

the rise of the floriculture industry in India

C)

the Government’s policies regarding floriculture

D)

the export of flowers from India

117)

Which three states are the major cultivators of floriculture products?

, Avg: 01:06 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

B)

Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and West Bengal

C)

Karnataka, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh

D)

Tamil Nadu, Assam and Chhattisgarh

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


Fishing traps, baskets, cradles, bridges, rainproof hats and umbrellas, mats, musical instruments, water pipes—Indians have always used the bamboo in numerous ways. It is used for house construction, fencing and in the making of bullock carts. Low-cost domestic furniture and a vast range of domestic utility items made of bamboo can be easily seen in any of our bazaars. But we do not easily notice the countless little ways this modest material comes to be used by rural people. One can see it being used in the blacksmith’s bellows, or as bamboo pins in carpentry joints or in the fabrication of toys in village markets. But to the British foresters the multidimensional role that “the forest weed” played in the local Indian environment was of no account, as it did not figure in forest revenues. Bamboo also interfered with the growing of teak, an essential part of their colonial forest policy. It was only in the 1920s that the British realised that by mincing bamboo into millimetre shreds, cooking it in chemicals, pulping and flattening it, they could produce sheets of paper. This would bring the British increased forest revenue and ‘development’ (as defined by them) to the so-called backward regions of India. However, they chose to ignore the consequences this activity would have on the health of the forest. So while bamboo was sold at high prices to basket weavers, it was heavily subsidised for the paper industry. Even after Independence, supplying bamboo at extremely low prices to Indian paper mills became a ‘patriotic’ duty of the government, and bamboo supplies were assured for decades at unchanged prices. The disaster that this would cause to the forests, and to the craftsperson, still remained unforeseen.
Colonialism affected forests all across India and marginalised their inhabitants and the traditional occupations they practised. As late as the 1970s, the World Bank proposed that 4,600 hectares of natural Sal forest should be replaced by tropical pine to provide pulp for the paper industry. It was only after protests by local environmentalists that the project was stopped. Colonialism was therefore not only about repression, it was also a story of displacement, impoverishment and ecological crisis.

118)

Bamboo is referred to as ‘modest material’ because:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

the British believed it was worthless

B)

it can be easily shredded and reduced to a pulp

C)

it is available in abundance in India

D)

it is inexpensive and not highly acclaimed

119)

What was considered to be a patriotic duty of the government after independence ?

, Avg: 00:58 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

Supplying bamboo at low prices to paper mills

B)

Replacing Sal forests by tropical pines

C)

Handling the ecological crisis in India

D)

Preventing the displacement of foresters

120)

Which of these is NOT a step in the production of paper ?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

Mincing

B)

Weaving

C)

Flattening

D)

Pulping

121)

What does the ‘forest weed’ refer to ?

, Avg: 00:25 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

Pine

B)

Bamboo

C)

Teak

D)

Sal

122)

The varied uses of bamboo were disregarded by the British till the 1920s because:

, Avg: 01:42 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

they did not use bamboo products at all

B)

it was used in the backward regions only

C)

the bamboo products were cheaply available

D)

it did not increase the forest revenue

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.


Greek religious traditions encompassed a large pantheon of gods, complex mythologies, rituals and cult practices. Greece was a polytheistic society, and looked to its gods and mythology to explain natural mysteries as well as current events. Religious festivals and ceremonies were held throughout the year, and animal sacrifice and votive offerings were popular ways to appease and worship the gods. Religious life, rituals and practices were one of the unifying aspects of Greece across regions and poleis (cities, or city-states, such as Athens and Sparta).
Greek gods were immortal beings who possessed human-like qualities and were represented as completely human in visual art. They were moral and immoral, petty and just, and often vain. The gods were invoked to intervene and assist in all matters large, small, private and public.
City-states claimed individual gods and goddesses as their patrons. Temples and sanctuaries to the gods were built in every city. Many cities became cult sites due to their connection with a god or goddess and specific myths. For instance, the city of Delphi was known for its oracle and sanctuary of Apollo, because Apollo was believed to have killed a dragon that inhabited Delphi.
 The history of the Greek pantheon begins with the primordial deities Gaia (Mother Earth) and Uranus (Father Sky), who were the parents of the first of twelve giants known as Titans. Among these Titans were six males and six females. The males were named Oceanus, Hyperion, Coeus, Crius, Iapetus, and Kronos. The females were named Themis, Mnemosyne, Tethys, Theia, Phoebe, and Rhea.
Kronos eventually overthrew Uranus and ruled during a mythological Golden Age. Over time, he and Rhea had twelve children who would become the Olympian gods. However, Kronos heard a prophecy that his son would overthrow him, as he did to Uranus. In an effort to avert fate, he ordered Rhea to allow him to devour each of the children upon their birth.
Best known among the pantheon are the twelve Olympian gods and goddesses who resided on Mt. Olympus in northern Greece. Zeus, the youngest son of Rhea and Kronos, was hidden from his father, instead of being swallowed. Once he became a man, he challenged his father’s rule, forcing Kronos to regurgitate the rest of his swallowed children. These children were Zeus’s siblings, and together they overthrew Kronos,  making Zeus the father of gods and men.

123)

Animal sacrifices were made to Gods to:

, Avg: 01:32 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

pacify and worship them

B)

understand nature’s mysteries

C)

know about future events

D)

enrage and challenge them

124)

Which of the following statements about Greek Gods is NOT true?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

Some of them were immoral, petty and vain.

B)

Greek Gods were mortals.

C)

They possessed human qualities.

D)

They were invoked to aid in all matters.

125)

How did Zeus bring back his siblings?

SSC CPO 2020
A)

by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children

B)

by worshipping the sanctuary of Apollo

C)

by reviving them with an elixir

D)

by challenging and slaying Crius

126)

The twelve Olympian Gods and Goddesses were the children of:

, Avg: 00:29 , 100% SSC CPO 2020
A)

Gaia and Uranus

B)

Kronos and Rhea

C)

Zeus and Phoebe

D)

Hyperion and Theia

127)

Kronos devoured his children at birth because:

SSC CPO 2020
A)

he was a titan who hated children

B)

it was a cult practice to please the gods

C)

his son was predicted to overthrow him

D)

he did not have faith in his wife

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Many of us have enjoyed visiting a zoo and consider it a day out having fun. Seeing real animals face to face can be thrilling and exciting, but many people wonder whether the animals themselves, while entertaining us, are suffering in the zoos.
Many zoos do not have enough money to provide the animals with the basic features of a proper environment. Most animals are put in an artificial environment (e.g., cages). This isolation from their natural habitat can amount to cruelty. In some zoos, we see concrete floors for burrowing animals like rabbits. Cruelty may be shown in ways other than physical abuse or starvation.
Big predators like lions and tigers are created to chase and hunt. By depriving them of these activities, we forget the reason for which they have evolved. These big cats lie in cages in the zoo eating the food given to them and they have nothing else to do. Highly intelligent and curious animals like chimpanzees and polar bears may become frustrated in a zoo; they need a challenging environment.
Zoo supporters might argue that zoos provide educational opportunities to the visitors, especially children; if we didn’t have animals in zoos, children wouldn’t see them at all and be ignorant about them. We live at a time when animals in their natural habitat can be seen on TV or computers, even smart phones, while sitting at home. Therefore, the aim should be to conserve animals in the wild, in protected areas called sanctuarie

128)

According to the passage, we visit zoos ______.

, Avg: 00:23 , 66%
A)

to watch the frustration of animals in cages

B)

to see how animals behave in zoos

C)

to spend a day out for fun and excitement

D)

to see the animals in cages

129)

‘Burrowing’ animals:

, Avg: 00:18 , 85%
A)

are intelligent and curious

B)

chase and hunt other animals

C)

are solitary animals

D)

dig the earth for food and shelter

130)

The word ‘predators’ (in paragraph 3) means:

, Avg: 00:29 , 63%
A)

animals which kill others for food

B)

animals which are starving in zoos

C)

animals which are kept in their natural habitat

D)

animals which are killed for food

131)

According to the passage, animals in zoos suffer cruelty:

, Avg: 00:16 , 81%
A)

by being kept in artificial environments

B)

by being starved to death

C)

by being physically tortured or abused

D)

by being forced to perform for the visitors

132)

Which of the following best states the author’s purpose in the passage

, Avg: 01:54 , 55%
A)

One of the main reasons for which big predators have evolved is hunting.

B)

We can show our concern for animals better by supporting protected spaces for them in the natural environment.

C)

Putting endangered species of animals in zoos is the best way of protecting and saving them.

D)

If animals were not kept in zoos, children would not be able to see and know about them at all.

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
“The two great empires of Lilliput and Blefuscu have been engaged in a most obstinate war for six-and-thirty moons past. It began upon the following occasion. It is allowed on all hands that the primitive way of breaking eggs, before we eat them, was upon the larger end; but his present majesty’s grandfather, while he was a boy, going to eat an egg, and breaking it according to the ancient practice, happened to cut one of his fingers. Whereupon the emperor his father published an edict, commanding all his subjects, upon great penalties, to break the smaller end of their eggs. The people so highly resented this law, that our histories tell us, there have been six rebellions raised on that account; wherein one emperor lost his life, and another his crown. These civil commotions were constantly fomented by the monarchs of Blefuscu; and when they were quelled, the exiles always fled for refuge to that empire. It is computed that eleven thousand persons have at several times suffered death, rather than submit to break their eggs at the smaller end. Many hundred large volumes have been published upon this controversy: but the books of the Big-endians have been long forbidden, and the whole party rendered incapable by law of holding employments. During the course of these troubles, the emperors of Blefusca did frequently expostulate by their ambassadors, accusing us of making a schism in religion, by offending against a fundamental doctrine of our great prophet Lustrog. This, however, is thought to be a mere strain upon the text; for the words are these: ‘that all true believers break their eggs at the convenient end.’ And which is the convenient end, seems, in my humble opinion to be left to every man’s conscience, or at least in the power of the chief magistrate to determine. ow, the Big-endian exiles have found so much credit in the emperor of Blefuscu’s court, and so much private assistance and encouragement from their party here at home, that a bloody war has been carried on between the two empires for six-and-thirty moons, with various success; during which time we have lost forty capital ships, and a much greater number of smaller vessels, together with thirty thousand of our best seamen and soldiers; and the damage received by the enemy is reckoned to be somewhat greater than ours. However, they have now equipped a numerous fleet, and are just preparing to make a descent upon us; and his imperial majesty, placing great confidence in your valour and strength, has commanded me to lay this account of his affairs before you.” Thus spoke the Principal Secretary.
I desired the secretary to present my humble duty to the emperor; and to let him know that I thought it would not become me, who was a foreigner, to interfere with parties; but I was ready, with the hazard of my life, to defend his person and state against all invaders.

133)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A)

The narrator refuses to defend the emperor against the invaders.

B)

The doctrine of Prophet Lustrog mentions the ‘convenient end’ of the eggs.

C)

The two empires had been at war for thirty-six moons.

D)

The Big-endians found refuge at Blefuscu.

134)

What inference can be drawn from the narrative?

, Avg: 00:46 , 100%
A)

On should remain loyal to the monarch.

B)

Wars may be waged over very trivial issues.

C)

A peaceful solution to the problem is possible.

D)

It is important to follow rules.

135)

What was the result of the edict published by the emperor of Lilliput’s great grandfather?

A)

People abandoned Lilliput and left for Blefuscu

B)

People readily agreed to follow his command

C)

People rebelled against the new law

D)

People attacked the emperor and overthrew him

136)

The empires of Lilliput and Blefuscu are:

A)

hostile towards each other

B)

ruled by one emperor

C)

cordial and friendly neighbours

D)

ready to compromise with each other

137)

What was the primitive way of eating eggs in Lilliput?

, Avg: 00:36 , 100%
A)

Breaking in the middle

B)

Breaking at the larger end

C)

Breaking at the smaller end

D)

Eating it whole

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Students are increasingly turning to online courses because they have become a better wayto learn. Online courses offer students greater control over their own learning by enablingthem to work at their own pace.
Some other benefits are the engaging multimedia content, greater access to the instructorand the stimulating online interactions with other students and the teachers. All these can addto enhanced learning and improved retention.
Another key feature is that online courses tend to include more frequent assessments. Themore often students are assessed, the better their instructors can track progress andintervene when needed.
I experienced all this myself when I completed a six-week online program through ColumbiaBusiness School. As a busy executive, the only way I was able to take such a course wasonline. And it proved to be an incredibly valuable and timely experience – highly relevant tomy new job. I was able to do many of the lecture portions from my iPhone while sitting on aplane. I did coursework during the week and turned in weekly assignments on Sundayevening. And each Wednesday, I attended live online sessions with professors and studentsfrom around the world.
Many students who have taken both face-to-face and online courses now rank their onlineexperiences equal to or better than their more traditional classroom courses. We havereached a watershed moment when the discussion will no longer be about the relative meritsof online learning, but how best to implement online programmes for maximum effect onstudent enrollment and success.

138)

By ‘watershed moment’ the writer means:

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

middle point

B)

checkpoint

C)

turning point

D)

pinpoint

139)

The writer found the online course useful because he ______.

, Avg: 01:19 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

could adjust and fit the course to his work schedule

B)

did not have to submit regular assignments

C)

was given special study leave from his executive duties

D)

spent wonderful hours chatting online about his interests

140)

Select the option that does NOT correctly complete the given sentence.
Online course professors ______.

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

check progress regularly

B)

do not permit peer interaction

C)

interact with student groups

D)

intervene when necessary

141)

Many students who have taken online courses feel that ______.

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

online courses are only for working people

B)

nothing can replace face-to-face traditional learning

C)

traditional classrooms have better content and teachers

D)

online experience is equal, if not better than the traditional

142)

Select the option that does NOT correctly complete the given sentence.
Online classes are useful because one ______.

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

has to take only one final examination

B)

has more control over one’s learning

C)

can study at one’s own pace

D)

can easily clarify one’s doubts online

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
As the family finally sets off from home after many arguments, there is a moment of lull as thecar takes off. “Alright, so where are we going for dinner now?” asks the one at the drivingwheel. What follows is chaos as multiple voices make as many suggestions.
By the time order is restored and a decision is arrived at, tempers have risen, feelings injuredand there is at least one person grumbling.
Twenty years ago, you would step out of home, the decision of meal and venue already madewith no arguments or opposition and everybody looked forward to the meal with equalenthusiasm. The decision was made by the head of the family and the others fell in line.Today, every member of the family has a say in every decision which also promotes a senseof togetherness and bonding.
We empower our kids to take their own decisions from a very early age. We ask them thecuisine they prefer, the movie they want to see, the holiday they wish to go on and thesubjects they wish to study.
It’s a closely connected world, out there where children consult and guide each other. Aparent’s well-meaning advice can sound like nothing more than unnecessary preaching. Howthen do we teach our children through all the conflicting views and make the voice of reasonbe heard? Children today question choices and prefer to go with the flow.
What then is the best path to take? I would say the most important thing one can do is tolisten. Listen to your children and their silences. Ensure that you keep some time aside forthem, insist that they share their stories with you. Step into their world. It is not as complicatedas it sounds; just a daily half an hour of quality time would do the trick.

143)

What does the speaker recommend to the parents as the best path to take?

A)

To advise children at every step so that they do not make mistakes.

B)

To handle the children with authority and make them obey.

C)

To be a part of the children’s world by listening to them.

D)

To spend all their time with the children and not leave them alone.

144)

According to the passage, how was the scenario different twenty years ago?

A)

Decisions were simpler as there were not many choices.

B)

Everyone looked forward to outings enthusiastically.

C)

There was no bonding between family members.

D)

Decisions were taken by the head of the family and everybody agreed.

145)

Why is there a chaos when the family is ready to drive?

A)

The family members did not get along well.

B)

They do not trust the person at the wheel.

C)

There is a disagreement over the venue.

D)

Some family members are not comfortably seated.

146)

Is everyone happy when the decision is made?

A)

Maybe

B)

Yes

C)

Can’t say

D)

No

147)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A)

Today, children consult each other and go with the flow.

B)

Today’s kids are involved in decision making.

C)

Parents’ advice often sounds like preaching to the children.

D)

Kids are not given the freedom to choose what they want.

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
Comprehension:
India was one of the first places where human civilization started. Around 5000 years BC this civilization was located around the Indus River. Hence, it is known as Indus Valley civization. It is also known as Harappan Civilization because records show one of the city's names was Harappa. It was 1 of 1500 cities in the Indus River Valley, another well-known city being Mohenjo-Daro. It wasn't until 1920 that the civilization was discovered at all.
There were four known major cities, Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Mehrgarh, and Lothal. Mohenjo-daro was not only the largest city of the Indus Valley Civilization but also one of the world’s earliest major urban centers. Much of the cities were made from clay bricks baked in a furnace known as a kiln. The cities were advanced for their time, having their own wells and water drainage systems as well as having grid-style roads in the cities.They were also noted for clusters of large, nonresidential buildings. But most people did not live in the urban areas and instead lived in the local farming villages.
Though little is known about the Indus Valley people, we do know a little about their farming habits. They had domesticated peas, wheat, melons, dates, sesame seeds, as well as cotton. They had advanced knowledge of the process of drying wheat, and a large granary was discovered, a building whose sole purpose is to hold and dry large amounts of wheat. They also created some large structures, one of the largest being a public pool known as the Great Bath that was 40 feet long, 10 feet deep, and 20 feet wide.

148)

Which of the following crops were NOT grown by people of Indus Valley?

, Avg: 00:54 , 100%
A)

cotton

B)

peas

C)

wheat

D)

sugarcane

149)

Which discovery indicated that people of Indus valley stored large amount of grain?

, Avg: 00:16 , 100%
A)

the Great Bath

B)

brick houses

C)

the granary

D)

clusters of non residential buildings

150)

The passage belongs to the subject area of

, Avg: 00:06 , 100%
A)

geography

B)

history

C)

civics

D)

architecture

151)

Which was the largest city of the Indus Valley civilization?

, Avg: 00:09 , 100%
A)

Lothal

B)

Harappa

C)

Mehrgarh

D)

Mohenjo-Daro

152)

Which of the following statements shows that the cities of Indus Valley were well planned?

, Avg: 07:52 , 100%
A)

The structures were made of baked bricks.

B)

The cities had grid-style roads and water drainage system.

C)

There were clusters of large nonresidential buildings.

D)

There were wells for water in the cities.

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Rahul’s wife knows that Rahul loves to cook. So for his birthday she decided to get acookbook for him. She presented it to him in the morning. Rahul was so delighted that he toldher that he would prepare his birthday dinner himself. They invited Rahul’s two friends, Mohitand Anshul, for the party.
Rahul first prepared tomato soup. He put in tomatoes, carrots and onions in the soup withsome salt and pepper. The recipe called for some cream to be put on the soup. So, Rahultook some fresh cream from the milk in the fridge, whipped it and put it on the soup. Hismother, who was also there, just loved the soup.
For the main course, Rahul prepared peas and paneer which he bought during the day fromthe supermarket. The peas and paneer dish was cooked in tomato gravy according to thecookbook with a lot of different spices. His friends liked this dish the best. Apart from this,Rahul also prepared some cucumber, onion and peanut salad to go with the peas and paneerdish and pooris. It was the easiest for him to make. Rahul’s wife loved the salad the best.
Finally, Rahul also prepared a sweet dish to be served as dessert after the dinner. It waskheer, the traditional Indian dish, made of rice cooked in milk with some roasted nuts forgarnishing. Everybody enjoyed the kheer after the dinner.

153)

How did Rahul manage to get the cream for the soup?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

He just took it out of the fridge.

B)

He bought it from the supermarket.

C)

His wife got it for him.

D)

He whipped the fresh cream from the milk.

154)

What did Rahul get from the supermarket?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Cucumber and carrots

B)

Peas and paneer

C)

Tomatoes and onions

D)

Rice and milk

155)

Which ingredients did Rahul put in the soup that he prepared?
a. Tomatoes
b. Onions
c. Carrots

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

a and b

B)

a, b and c

C)

a and c

D)

b and c

156)

How did Rahul get the cookbook?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

His wife presented it to him.

B)

He bought it from the supermarket.

C)

His friends brought it for him.

D)

His mother got it for him.

157)

Match the people with the dishes they liked.
People Dishes they liked
a. Rahul’s wife 1. Soup
b. Rahul’s mother 2. Peas and paneer
c. Rahul’s friends 3. Salad

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

a-2, b-1, c-3

B)

a-1, b-3, c-2

C)

a-3, b-2, c-1

D)

a-3, b-1, c-2

Instructions:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
A hare was very popular with the other beasts who all claimed to be her friend. But one dayshe heard the hounds approaching and hoped to escape them with the help of her manyfriends. “What are friends for,” she asked herself, “if not to help out in time of need?”Furthermore, most of her friends were big and brave, so at least one should be able to help.First she went to the horse, and asked him to carry her away from the hounds on his back.But he declined, stating that he had important work to do for his master. ” I feel sure,” he said,“that all your other friends will come to your assistance.” She then applied to the bull, andhoped that he would repel the hounds with his horns. The bull replied: “I am very sorry, but Ihave an appointment. However, I feel sure that our friend the goat will do what you want.” Thegoat, however, feared that his back might be harmed if he took her upon it. The ram, he feltsure, was the proper friend to apply to. So she went to the ram and told him the case. Theram replied: “Another time, my dear friend. I do not like to interfere on the present occasion,as hounds have been known to eat sheep as well as hares.” The hare then applied, as a lasthope, to the calf, who regretted that he was unable to help her. He did not like to take theresponsibility upon himself, as so many older persons had declined the task. By this time thehounds were quite near, so the hare had to take to her heels. Luckily, she escaped.

158)

What is the moral of the story?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Don’t try to run before you can walk

B)

Beware of fair weather friends

C)

Barking dogs seldom bite

D)

Ignorance is bliss

159)

Who could force back the hounds with his horns?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

bull

B)

ram

C)

calf

D)

goat

160)

Why did the horse refuse to help the hare?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

He was afraid of the hounds

B)

He would not be able to carry her

C)

He had an appointment

D)

He had work to do for his master

161)

Which of these was NOT the reason why the hare believed her friends would help her?

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

she believed that’s friends always helped

B)

her friends had promised to help

C)

her friends were big and brave

D)

she was popular among all

162)

“ take to her heels” means

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

hide somewhere

B)

run away quickly

C)

hop on the heels

D)

take others’ help

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
What writers struggle to express through numerous newspaper columns, the cartoon manages in a pointed one-liner. Little wonder then , that the first thing most of us like to see when we pick up a newspaper is the cartoon.
Simple though it may seem, making a cartoon is an art that requires a combination of hard work , training and a good sense of humour. Cartoonists say that the cartoons that make us laugh the most are in fact the cartoons that are hardest to make. Even celebrated cartoonists like RK Laxman admit that making a cartoon is not a piece of cake. Laxman says he has to wait for over six hours , which includes spending a lot of time scanning newspapers and television channels before any idea strikes him.
So how does one become a cartoonist? Which one of us has the talent to make it? How can we master the ribtickling strokes and the witty one-liners? How can we make people smile or laugh? There are few colleges or schools for cartoonists. Most cartoonists come from art colleges, while some learn the craft on their own. Most established cartoonists are of the view that no institute can teach you to make a cartoon. “You can pick up the craft, you may learn to sketch and draw in institutes , but no one can teach anyone how to make a good cartoon,” says Uday Shanker, a cartoonist with Navbharat Times. While basics , like drawing and sketching can be learnt in an art college, and are important skills, these alone , do not make a good cartoonist. Because it’s a question of one’s creativity and sense of humour; two qualities one simply may not have. The advice that established cartoonists give is that just because you can sketch, don’t take it for granted that you will become a successful cartoonist.

163)

Which of the following is most important in the making of a good cartoonist?

, Avg: 00:33 , 75% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Sense of humour

B)

Drawing skill

C)

Hard work

D)

Training

164)

It can be inferred from the passage that:

, Avg: 00:25 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

creativity can be acquired in institutes

B)

making cartoons is a combination of art and wit

C)

all cartoonists get ideas from newspapers

D)

any good artist can become a cartoonist

165)

“making a cartoon is not a piece of cake.” This means that creating cartoons is:

, Avg: 00:14 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

a rare talent

B)

a basic skill

C)

a tough challenge

D)

a very simple task

166)

What is the advice given by established cartoonists?

, Avg: 01:21 , 75% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Knowledge of current affairs is important for a cartoonist.

B)

Cartoons that make us laugh should have pointed one-liners.

C)

Do not assume you can become a cartoonist just because you can sketch.

D)

Everyone has the talent to become a good cartoonist.

167)

According to the author what is the first thing most of us like to see in a newspaper?

, Avg: 01:00 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Art

B)

Headlines

C)

Cartoon

D)

Craft

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last thing you wanted to do?
If your answer is yes, then you are not a robot. Unlike robots, we human beings have feelings, emotions and dreams. We are all meant to grow and stretch despite our circumstances and our limitations. Flourishing and trying to make our dreams come true is great when life is going our way. But what happens when it’s not? What happens when you fail despite all your hard work? Do you stay down and accept the defeat or do you get up again and again until you are satisfied? If you have a tendency to keep going, then you have what experts call grit.
Falling down or failing is one of the most agonising, embarrassing and scariest human experiences. But, it is also one of the most educational, empowering and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life. Did you know that perseverance is one of the seven qualities that have been described as the keys to personal success and betterment in society? The other six are: curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence and zest. Thomas Edison is a model for grit for trying 1,000 plus times to invent the light bulb. If you are reading this with the lights on in your room, you know well he succeeded. When asked why he kept going despite his hundreds of failures, he merely stated that they were not failures. They were hundreds of ways not to create a light bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for looking at the bright side.
Grit can be learnt to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that help is mindfulness. Mindfulness is a practice that helps the individual stay in the moment by bringing awareness of his or her experience without judgment. This practice has been used to quiet the noise of their fears and doubts. Through the simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of hopelessness, despair and frustration.

168)

Select the word from the passage that means the same as ‘grit’.

, Avg: 00:09 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Perseverance

B)

Gratitude

C)

Curiosity

D)

Optimism

169)

What do you understand by ‘mindfulness’?

, Avg: 00:26 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Awareness of experience without judgment

B)

Consciousness of one’s fears and doubts

C)

Slipping into despair and frustration

D)

Peaceful meditation in quiet surroundings

170)

Thomas Edison is a role model for:

, Avg: 00:36 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

determination

B)

intelligence

C)

despair

D)

self-control

171)

Which of the following qualities would you find in a robot?

, Avg: 00:46 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Precision

B)

Emotions

C)

Dreams

D)

Feelings

172)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 00:39 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

One should give up if one fails repeatedly.

B)

Optimism can help overcome failure.

C)

Failing leads to embarrassment.

D)

Failure empowers and educates.

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Happiness is the primary goal of human existence. Philosophers have wrestled with the concept of happiness. Legislators create laws to support citizens’ rights to pursue happiness. Television, radio, and print advertisers assure consumers that various products will guarantee happiness. Clearly, everyone, from writers and philosophers to legislators and the average person on the street thinks a great deal about happiness. What makes happiness so important to human existence?
ot only does happiness feel good, but it appears to provide a variety of psychological and physical benefits. Happiness plays a significant role in enhancing good health, strengthening the immune system, promoting longevity, improving productivity and performance, and increasing resilience. Happy people work hard, play hard, have an active social life, experience good health and live longer.
However, good news abounds in the study of happiness. Fortunately, humans experience happiness from a wide range of stimuli, from traveling to an exotic destination to redecorating one’s home or from winning a game of soccer to eating a delicious meal. Simply watching a favourite television show or laughing at a funny joke can boost a depressed mood. While the happiness produced by such experiences tends to be short lived, certain conditions do promote a more long-lasting and durable state of happiness as a lifestyle: a wide social network, believing in a meaningful reason for one’s existence, and establishing goals and achieving them.
Surprisingly, income is not a primary factor in determining a person’s level of happiness once the basic needs of food, clothing, and shelter have been met. More important is one’s social network and having close friends and family is vital to one’s overall level of happiness. Even sharing one’s home with an animal companion can make a person happier.

173)

According to the writer, what is the primary goal of human life?

, Avg: 00:09 , 66% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Long life

B)

Good health

C)

Happiness

D)

Social life

174)

Those who are happy ______.

, Avg: 00:12 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

have a weak immune system

B)

lead a long and healthy life

C)

make laws to protect happiness

D)

use products that guarantee happiness

175)

Which of the following quotes is most apt for the passage?

, Avg: 00:13 , 66% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

If you want happiness for a lifetime, help someone.

B)

You can find happiness even in little things of life.

C)

Happiness and sadness run parallel to each other.

D)

Happiness is a form of courage.

176)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 00:15 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Being happy has physical and psychological benefits.

B)

Laughing can elevate one's mood

C)

Achievement of goals provides momentary happiness.

D)

Close friends and family contribute to happiness.

177)

Which of the following can stimulate long lasting happiness?

, Avg: 01:19 , 33% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Winning a game

B)

Travelling

C)

Delicious food

D)

Social networking

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Much to their annoyance, pen-pushers are routinely reminded that a picture is worth a thousand words—except that sometimes they can be wrong ‘words’ as happened last week when Reuters was forced to withdraw more than 900 pictures taken by a freelance photographer after it was suspected that he had ‘doctored’ two recent photographs of the Israeli-Lebanon conflict.
In one picture, the smoke billowing from an apartment block after an Israeli air strike was allegedly thickened by the photographer, Adnan Hajj, to dramatise the impact of the bombardment — and in another two flares were suspected to have been added to an image of an Israeli jet in action over Lebanon.
The allegation of doctoring, first made by several bloggers, was confirmed by Reuters after an inhouse investigation. Mr. Hajj, who had sold pictures to Reuters for more than 10 years, denied manipulating the two photographs and attributed the thick smoke in the first picture to “bad lighting” and the fact that he was “trying to remove dust marks.” As for the second, he said, “there was no problem with it — not at all.”
But Reuters was not convinced and said it was removing all of his pictures from its database and would not be using his services any more. “This represents a serious breach of Reuters’ standards and we shall not be accepting or using pictures taken by him,” the news agency said.
The idea that the camera never lies is as misleading as the notion that all statistics are meant to mislead. What the ‘eye’ sees is not always what it looks like, thanks to the many ways in which first the camera and then the
photograph can be — and is often — manipulated. Indeed, a photograph can be manipulated in more ways — and more effectively — to convey a false reality than it is possible to do through the written word. Ask any clever photographer and he will tell you the tricks the camera can be made to play.
At a seminar recently, one journalist recalled how there was a time when British photographers, covering stories about famine or floods in Third World countries, would carry teddy bears with them in order to use them
as props for pictures supposedly showing that all that was left in the household, stricken by death and destruction, were children’s toys.

178)

'a picture is worth a thousand words’ means that:

, Avg: 00:24 , 100% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

pictures express more effectively than verbal descriptions

B)

it takes a lot of words to describe any complex picture

C)

detailed descriptions can enhance the value of a picture

D)

words are more descriptive than pictures

179)

Reuters withdrew pictures of a freelance photographer because:

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

they were not relevant

B)

they had been altered

C)

they were not clear

D)

they could lead to war

180)

According to the passage, it can be inferred that a camera:

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

never lies

B)

often lies

C)

always lies

D)

rarely lies

181)

Who was accused of tampering with the pictures?

, Avg: 02:08 , 50% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Lebanese activists

B)

British journalists

C)

Israeli fighters

D)

A freelance photographer

182)

The picture of smoke rising from an apartment depicted:

, Avg: 00:43 , 33% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

bombardment of an Israeli apartment

B)

the breach of Reuters’ standards

C)

thick smoke due to bad lighting

D)

Israeli airstrike on Lebanon

Instructions:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Amidst the corona pandemic, particularly during the lockdown phase, some positive effects were observed on the wildlife. During the lockdown phase, animals had an increased and uninterrupted territory. In some areas,
wild animals were seen on roads and in residential areas. Less traffic, less human intervention and less pollution gave space to wildlife to thrive. It was definitely a rare phenomenon on the roads. Wildlife re-entered the areas snatched from them. However, these positive and negative impacts were transient and were largely observed during the complete lockdown phase only.
Some of the worst sufferers of the pandemic are stray animals like dogs and cats. They are no longer able to survive on waste food material from restaurants and shops because of shops being closed. Also, they are being
abandoned by their owners due to unfounded fears that they may spread COVID-19. The worst possibility is that the stray animals might eat disposed masks and gloves, which can become lethal.
Overall although a few positive impacts of COVID-19 on the environment were seen, these were the short-term effects induced largely by the nation-wide lockdown. Indeed, the pandemic is expected to pose long-term
adverse effects on the environment in future.
Some of the gravest long-term effects of corona are the dangers posed to the environment. These are: the phenomenal increase in the use of chemicals that abound in hand wash and sanitizers; the extensive use of
plastic by way of masks and gloves; the huge amount of hospital waste; and finally the effect of prescription drugs and over-the-counter medications that get into lakes, rivers and streams which ultimately pollute our
waters. All these will eventually contribute to a tremendous increase in environmental pollution.

183)

'Unfounded fear’ means fear based on:

, Avg: 00:14 , 75% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

false belief

B)

rationality

C)

logic

D)

truth

184)

One major advantages of the complete lockdown for animals was more ______.

, Avg: 00:33 , 61% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

free space

B)

pollution

C)

human control

D)

traffic

185)

______ is NOT responsible for the increase in environmental pollution.

, Avg: 00:27 , 71% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Chemical waste from hospitals

B)

Disposable plastic

C)

Kitchen waste from homes

D)

Increased medicine consumption

186)

Select the statement that is NOT true as per the passage.

, Avg: 01:35 , 40% SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

Wild animals reclaimed their territories temporarily.

B)

Today, wildlife continues to live in deserted residential areas.

C)

Corona has very profound long-term effects on the environment.

D)

Initially, the lockdown was advantageous for the animal world.

187)

Select the option that does NOT correctly complete the given sentence.
During the pandemic, stray animals were at greater risk because they ______.

SSC Selection Post Matric 2022
A)

were sent to distant animal shelters

B)

could resort to eating disposable masks and plastic

C)

were abandoned by fearful owners

D)

did not have access to waste food from restaurants

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.


It was a bittersweet moment for me when I found out that I had been selected for the Sakura Science Exchange programme, a Robotics and IoT workshop in Japan. A fully-funded opportunity of a lifetime. Fly off to Saitama without a care on the world, and all I had to do was put into practice what I love to do – computer science. The bitter part of the episode – that I would lose two weeks of IB education, an almost literal mountain to cover when I got back – was quickly forgotten when I envisioned myself programming robots in the country that gave us Anime and sushi! It was with the eagerness to have an extended vacation in an un-visited land, and the opportunity to learn more about a subject that I am passionate about, that I headed to the Kempegowda International Airport outside Bengaluru. Little did I know this would be the experience of a lifetime, more for the endearing values of the Japanese culture that made their mark on me than anything else. The first feature of Japanese society that called out to me was the Discipline. Walking into the Narita International Airport, used as I was to the noisy crowds back in India, I quite literally lost my breath to the sight that awaited me. Be it the security check or baggage claim, somehow there was a silence that felt right. Everyone went about their activities without any confusion. And, contrary to the bharatiya custom of lazy pot-bellied officials, every guard and all counter personnel did what they were supposed to do to ensure this flow was maintained.

188)

Which country is credited for producing Anime?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

India

B)

Japan

C)

China

D)

USA

189)

What aspect of Japanese culture left a mark on the writer?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Their cuisine

B)

Their unity

C)

Their health consciousness

D)

Their values

190)

Why was the writer travelling to Japan?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

On a holiday

B)

For two weeks of IB education

C)

For employment

D)

To attend a robotics workshop

191)

What did the writer notice when he arrived at Narita International Airport?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

The bags arriving on time in baggage claim

B)

The cleanliness

C)

That there was no security check

D)

The silence

192)

What was it that the writer did not like about his trip to Japan?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

That the trip was so short

B)

That he would be compelled to eat sushi

C)

That he would miss a fortnight worth of IB education

D)

That Japanese people are too disciplined

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.


Doing an internship at the University of Lille in France, I almost always found myself stuck whenever I had to speak to non-Indians about India or on anything 'Indian'. This was more because of the subtle differences in the way the French understood India in comparison to what I thought was 'Indian'. For instance, when I, or any Indian for that matter, say 'Hindi' is an Indian language, what it means is that it is one of the languages widely spoken in India. This need not be similar to the understanding that the French would have when they hear of 'Hindi' as an Indian language. Because for them Hindi then becomes the only language spoken in India. This is a natural inference that the French, Germans, Italians and many other European nationals would tend to make, because that is generally how it is in their own respective countries. The risk of such inappropriate generalisations made about 'Indian' is not restricted to language alone but also for India's landscape, cuisine, movies, music, climate, economic development and even political ideologies. The magnitude of diversity of one European country can be easily compared to that of one of the Indian State, isn't it? Can they imagine that India is one country whose diversity can be equated to that of the entire European continent? The onus is upon us to go ahead and clarify the nuances in 'Indianness' while we converse. But why should one do so? How does it even matter to clarify?

193)

According to the writer the responsibility of explaining the facts about India to Europeans rests with?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Europeans

B)

Indians

C)

Rest of the world

D)

 Indian Government

194)

The writer compares diversity of one European country to the diversity of ____________.
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

One major city in India

B)

One Indian State

C)

The whole continent of Asia

D)

The whole world

195)

What wrong with respect to India are the Europeans responsible for?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Their hatred towards Indian culture

B)

Their complete lack of knowledge regarding India's past

C)

That India is economically decades behind the developed world

D)

Their inappropriate generalizations

196)

The writer was working at a university in which country?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Germany

B)

Italy

C)

France

D)

India

197)

Why do some French people think that Hindi is the only Indian language?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Because that is the way in most European countries

B)

That is what is being taught to them

C)

They know India is also called as Hindustan so people there must speak only Hindi

D)

 As most Indians they meet speak Hindi

A passage is given with five questions following it. Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given four alternatives.


Teaching about compassion and empathy in schools can help deal with problems of climate change and environmental degradation,” says Barbara Maas, secretary, Standing Committee for Environment and Conservation, International Buddhist Confederation (IBC). She was in New Delhi to participate in the IBC’s governing council meeting, December 10-11, 2017. “We started an awareness campaign in the year 2005-2006 with H H The Dalai Lama when we learnt that tiger skins were being traded in China and Tibet. At that time, I was not a Buddhist; I wrote to the Dalai Lama asking him to say that ‘this is harmful’ and he wrote back to say, “We will stop this.” He used very strong words during the Kalachakra in 2006, when he said, ‘If he sees people wearing fur and skins, he doesn’t feel like living. ‘This sent huge shock waves in the Himalayan community. Within six months, in Lhasa, people ripped the fur trim of their tubba, the traditional Tibetan dress. 


The messenger was ideal and the audience was receptive,” says Maas who is a conservationist. She has studied the battered fox’s behavioral ecology in Serengeti, Africa. She heads the endangered species conservation at the Nature and Biodiversity Conservation Union (NABU) International Foundation for Nature, Berlin. “I met Samdhong Rinpoche, The Karmapa, HH the Dalai Lama and Geshe Lhakdor and I thought, if by being a Buddhist, you become like this, I am going for it, “says Maas, who led the IBC initiative for including the Buddhist perspective to the global discourse on climate change by presenting the statement, ‘The Time to Act is Now: a Buddhist Declaration on Climate Change,’ at COP21 in Paris.


“It was for the first time in the history of Buddhism that leaders of different sanghas came together to take a stand on anything! The statement lists a couple of important things: the first is that we amass things that we don’t need; there is overpopulation; we need to live with contentment and deal with each other and the environment with love and compassion,” elaborates Maas. She is an ardent advocate of a vegan diet because “consuming meat and milk globally contributes more to climate change than all "transport in the world.” 


Turning vegetarian or vegan usually requires complete change of perspective before one gives up eating their favorite food. What are the Buddhist ways to bring about this kind of change at the individual level? “To change our behavior, Buddhism is an ideal vehicle; it made me a more contented person,” says Maas, who grew up in Germany, as a sausage chomping, meat-loving individual. She says, “If I can change, so can anybody”.

198)

Why did Ms. Barbara Mass say “If I can change, so can anybody”?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

She never wanted to change but she still did, so anyone else can.

B)

She was a complete vegan but still turned non vegetarian.

C)

She did not believe in Buddhism but the religion attracted her.

D)

 She grew up eating non vegetarian but turned vegan.

199)

According to the passage, what do you infer from ''The messenger was ideal and the audience was receptive''?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

It means that the audience found the messenger attractive and that they wanted to listen to him more and more.

B)

It means that audience’s reaction goes hand in hand with the speaker’s effectiveness.

C)

It means that HH Dalai Lama was a perfect choice of messenger for the message to be received by the audience.

D)

It means that messenger was tested and was working properly.

200)

What did HH Dalai Lama said to his followers which came as a blow to them?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

 He said “we need to live with contentment and deal with each other and the environment with love and compassion.

B)

He said that if he sees people wearing fur and skins, he doesn’t feel like living.

C)

He said Buddhism is an ideal vehicles it makes people more contented.

D)

He said “we need to live with contentment and deal with each other and the environment with love and compassion”.

201)

Why is Ms. Barbara an ardent follower of vegan diet?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

She believes that “consuming meat and milk contributes more to climate change than all transport in the world”.

B)

She believes that “turning vegan gives your skin an unmatchable glow and helps you stay away from diseases”.

C)

She believes that “all living beings should be treated with love and compassion”.

D)

She believes that “abstinence helps you win major battles of life”.

202)

According to the passage, how can studying compassion and empathy in schools help?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

It can help us understand and connect Buddhism.

B)

It can help deal with problems of climate change and environmental degradation.

C)

It can change our behaviours and make us more content person.

D)

It can help us in turning vegetarian.

A passage is given with five questions following it. Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given four alternatives.


The saddest part of life lies not in the act of dying, but in failing to truly live while we are alive. Too many of us play small with our lives, never letting the fullness of our humanity see the light of day. I’ve learned that what really counts in life, in the end, is not how many toys we have collected or how much money we’ve accumulated,  but how many of our talents we have liberated and used for a purpose that adds value to this world. What truly matters most are the lives we have touched and the legacy that we have left. Tolstoy put it so well when he wrote: “We live for ourselves only when we live for others.” It took me forty years to discover this simple point of wisdom.             Forty long years to discover that success cannot really be pursued. Success ensues and flows into your life as the unintended yet inevitable byproduct of a life spent enriching the lives of other people. When you shift your daily focus from a compulsion to survive towards a lifelong commitment to serve, your existence cannot help but explode into success. I still can’t believe that I had to wait until the “half-time” of my life to figure out that true fulfillment as a human being comes not from achieving those grand gestures that put us on the front pages of the newspapers and business magazines, but instead from those basic and incremental acts of decency that each one of us has the privilege to practice each and every day if we simply make the choice to do so.  


Mother Teresa, a great leader of human hearts if ever there was one, said it best: “There are no great acts, only small acts done with great love.” I learned this the hard way in my life. Until recently, I had been so busy striving, I had missed out on living. I was so busy chasing life’s big pleasures that I had missed out on the little ones, those micro joys that weave themselves in and out of our lives on a daily basis but often go unnoticed. My days were overscheduled, my mind was overworked and my spirit was underfed.

203)

According to the passage, what did Mother Teresa learned the hard way in her life?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

That there are no great acts, only small acts are done with great love.

B)

That she had been so busy striving that she had missed out on living.

C)

That her days were over scheduled and her mind was over worked.

D)

That she was so busy chasing life’s big pleasures that she had missed out on the little one’s.

204)

What according to the passage is success?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Success cannot be pursued.

B)

Success is true fulfillment.

C)

Success is an unintended yet inevitable byproduct of a life spent enriching the lives of others..

D)

 Success is incremental act of decency.

205)

According to the passage, what took Tolstoy forty years to discover?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Simple point of happiness.

B)

That we live for ourselves only when we live for others.

C)

That his spirit was undeterred.

D)

That he was a great leader of human hearts.

206)

Suggest a suitable title for the passage?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

True happiness as experienced by Mother Teresa

B)

Forty years of discovery Tolstoy

C)

Learning it the hard way

D)

Living truly

207)

According to the passage, what does ''failing to truly live while we are alive means.''?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

End up thinking of death all our lives.

B)

Focus on basic and incremental acts of decency.

C)

Never letting the fullness of our humanity see the light of day.

D)

Over scheduling our days and over paying ourselves.

Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given four alternatives.


One should consciously engage in activities that will nourish your soul. Just as we nourish the body, we need to nurture the soul to connect to the creative power of the universe and to manifest joy in our lives. Often, we forget to address the soul, lost as we are in a jungle of material and sensual pleasures. But the more you embrace what feeds your soul, the happier you become. So if you want to enjoy the abundance of life, engage in what enriches your soul. Nurturing the soul is all about finding calm amidst chaos. There are a number of practices that empower people towards this end including silent contemplation, various forms of meditation, yoga and tai chi However, the rigor and discipline involved in the pursuit of such practices often seems to discourage people. Add to this, the temptations of the material world that leave little time and motivation for anyone to pursue the spiritual path. Poet Walt Whitman declared: “Whatever satisfies the soul is truth”. The good news is that simple, everyday activities can also nutrify the soul — like spending time in the midst of nature, dancing in the rain or just putting thoughts on paper. Do whatever is calming and pleases you. Creative pursuits are particularly appealing as inside each one of us, there is an artist craving for release and awaiting an opportunity for expression. One of the ways to indulge the artist within is to get started with the practice of any one or more of the creative art forms such as music, singing, dancing, acting, drawing, painting, sculpting, poetry, fiction or essay writing.


When you engage in such soul nourishing activities, all thought and energy gets focused toward goal accomplishment. At this point, you will find that even unknown forces of the universe are conniving to assist you in your amateurish but sincere attempts. As you progress, you are motivated to do better. You touch and access a faculty, a part of you that you never knew existed. Your inner artist is unleashed, baring the beauty of your soul that has found a fond medium of expression. For instance, a sculptor’s soul is seen in his artwork; a musician’s in his compositions; an actor’s in his acting, a painter’s in his paintings and so on. It is immaterial whether your effort is an immaculate artwork or just a clumsy attempt by a layperson. The idea is to try, be inspired and to create giving free rein to the mind. As Michelangelo remarked: “I saw the angel in the marble and carved until I set him free”!


 

208)

Why do creative pursuits appeal us?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

They nutrify our souls.

B)

Inside each one of us, is an artist craving to come out.

C)

They identify beauty of our body.

D)

They are not simple activities.

209)

What can you infer from Michelangelo’s statement - "I saw the angel in the marble and carved until I set him free"?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Michelangelo’s soul probably wanted to free the angel and hence his artwork portrayed the same.

B)

Michelangelo didn’t like the angel and hence wanted to do away with it

C)

Michelangelo wanted his artwork to look as close to real as possible.

D)

Michelangelo’s mind felt free after setting the angel free in his artwork.

210)

What activities can nutrify soul?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Creative activities that needs your involvement.

B)

Any activity that doesn't touch the soul.

C)

Peaceful and calming activities.

D)

Immaculate artwork.

211)

According to the passage, why even our amateurish attempts motivate us?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Because we never knew that this part ever existed inside us.

B)

 Because even unknown forces of the universe are assisting us in them.

C)

Because these amateur attempts of ours are insincere ones.

D)

Because they still are clumsy and need improvement.

212)

According to the passage, what makes us really happy?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

 A soulful music.

B)

A soulful sculptures art.

C)

Freeing our mind.

D)

Embracing what feeds our soul.

Read the passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the given four alternatives.


The conclusion of World Trade Organization’s 11th biennial ministerial conference at Buenos Aires was worrisome. From an Indian standpoint, there was no loss as status quo continues in the most important issue: the right to continue the food security programme by using support prices. But the inability of the negotiators to reach even one substantive outcome suggests that WTO’s efficacy is under question. As a 164-country multilateral organisation dedicated to crafting rules of trade through consensus, WTO represents the optimal bet for developing countries such as India. Strengthening WTO is in India’s best interest.


Perhaps the biggest threat to WTO’s efficacy today is the attitude of the US. The world’s largest economy appears to have lost faith in the organisation and has begun to undermine one of its most successful segments, the dispute redressal mechanism. This is significant as the US has been directly involved in nearly half of all cases brought to WTO. Separately, large groups of countries decided to pursue negotiations on e-commerce, investment facilitation and removal of trade obstacles for medium and small scale industries. By itself this should not weaken WTO. But it comes at a time when there is growing frustration with gridlock at WTO.


India did well to defend its position on its food security programme. The envisaged reform package which will see a greater use of direct cash transfers to beneficiaries will be in sync with what developed countries do. But it’s important for India to enhance its efforts to reinvigorate WTO. In this context, India’s plan to organise a meeting of some countries early next year is a step in the right direction. WTO represents the best available platform to accommodate interests of a diverse set of nations. Therefore, India should be at the forefront of moves to fortify it.

213)

According to the passage, which of the following statement is NOT true?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

11th WTO conference was held at Nairobi.

B)

India’s take on food security programme in the WTO conference was positive.

C)

US is termed as the world’s largest economy.

D)

US is involved directly in half of the cases brought to WTO

214)

Which of the following is the most successful segments of the WTO mentioned in the passage?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Dispute redressal mechanism

B)

Intellectual Property Rights

C)

Reviewer of government’s trade policies.

D)

 Agreement on trade in services.

215)

Which of the following nation is keen to fortify its interest on WTO platform?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

USA

B)

Japan

C)

Russia

D)

India

216)

What is the biggest threat to WTO’s efficacy today?
 

SSC CGL 2018
A)

India being not working in its best interest.

B)

Lost of faith in WTO by US.

C)

Negotiators of WTO are not decision takers.

D)

WTO’s lame attitude towards global trade.

217)

Why was the WTO’s 11th binennial ministerial conference worrisome?

SSC CGL 2018
A)

Denial of states quo.

B)

Inability of negotiators to reach to substantive outcome for the problems.

C)

Rift in the policies suggested by WTO on IPR.

D)

Non-cooperation from Indian government on various matters.

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow-
Comprehension:
Brain training is big business. From online websites to video games to mobile apps, it seems like there are plenty of ways to give your brain a bit of a boost. But does all this brain training really work? Can it increase your cognitive abilities or your IQ? According to a few recent studies, while these brain training tools might help sharpen your abilities to retain information, they won't necessarily increase your intelligence or improve your ability to reason and think abstractly.
The parent company of one of the most prominent "brain training" websites was recently fined for deceptive advertising. According to the complainant, the company suggested its games could reduce or delay cognitive impairment such as one might find in Alzheimer's patients, which is false.
So while there may be some benefits to brain training, don't expect miraculous results. Earlier studies have found no link between increased intelligence and brain training exercises.

Same is the case with standardized tests. Students today take a wide variety of standardized tests, from assessments throughout elementary school to evaluations required for college admission. While test preparation for such assessments can increase factual knowledge, one study suggests that this preparation does little to increase overall IQ.
Why is it so? While test preparation increases what psychologists refer to as crystallized intelligence, it does not increase what is known as fluid intelligence. Crystallized intelligence includes facts and information, while fluid intelligence involves the ability to think abstractly or logically.
In a study published in the journal Psychological Science, researchers looked at the IQ scores and test scores of approximately 1,400 eighth-grade students. While schoolwork helped increase the students' test scores, it had no effect on measures of fluid intelligence. The authors suggest that fluid intelligence is a much better indicator of abilities such as problemsolving ability, abstract thinking skills, memory capacity, and processing speed.
While the study found no indicator that test preparation improved IQ, that does not mean that this preparation has no value. Research clearly shows that having high scores on standardized tests is linked to having high scores on other important tests including Advanced Placement tests, the SAT etc.

218)

From the passage one can arrive at the conclusion that both brain training and standardized tests -

, Avg: 00:16 , 33% SSC CGL 2019
A)

do not really increase overall IQ and mental abilities.

B)

sharpen logical thinking through intensive training.

C)

increase brain functioning and performance.

D)

make you more intelligent and get better results.

219)

On comparing crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence it is found that-

, Avg: 00:54 , 33% SSC CGL 2019
A)

students have better fluid intelligence and perform better because of schoolwork and standardized test.

B)

crystallized intelligence helps in making you think with a logical mind gives you better test scores.

C)

fluid intelligence is what gives a learner skills such as problem-solving and processing of information.

D)

crystallized intelligence is better because it helps you learn facts and information.

220)

A brain training site was fined for-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

making false claims

B)

causing Alzheimer’s disease

C)

helping improve learning ability

D)

decreasing intelligence

221)

What do brain training tools do?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Enable you to retain information

B)

Sharpen the ability to think clearly

C)

Increase intelligence

D)

Improve problem solving abilities

222)

In the passage, ‘give your brain a bit of a boost’ means to -

SSC CGL 2019
A)

increase its ability to grow stronger

B)

be able to play video games

C)

increase its size

D)

sharpen it

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow
Comprehension:
Mount Everest, the world’s highest peak at 8,848 metres, draws adventurers from all over. But the mountain on the Nepal-China border is fast becoming a dangerous place to visit even for the hardened mountaineer. The inherent risks were highlighted with a photograph by Nirmal Purja, a Gorkha ex-soldier. The image, which went viral and altered the manner in which people worldwide imagine what it is to scale Mt. Everest, showed a long queue awaiting a final tilt at the summit, with all the dangers such a wait holds. In the 2019 season, at least 11 climbers have died or gone missing, including four Indians. Experts have been calling for Nepal to restrict the number of permits. It awarded a record 381 for this spring each fetching $11,000 (climbing from the Tibet side is more expensive). On 22nd May, 200 climbers ascended the summit, a new record for a single day. Last year, 807 managed to reach the summit. In 2012, the United Nations estimated that there were more than 26,000 visitors to the Everest region, and this figure has grown manifold since then. Nepal officials argue that permits are not issued recklessly, and that jams such as this year’s near the summit are on account of spells of bad weather, which result in mountaineers being compelled to reach the summit within a narrow time frame. Waiting in sub-zero temperatures at rarefied altitude can be fatal--- this season’s deaths were mostly due to frostbite, exhaustion, dehydration and lack of oxygen.
This year’s drama has caught public imagination, as happened in 1996 when eight persons died in a single day amid an unexpected storm - events of and around that day were the subject of Jon Krakauer’s bestselling book ‘Into Thin Air’. The adventure industry that is built around the human desire to scale the peak has meant many amateurs take up the challenge, confident that support teams and specialized equipment will make up for their lack of adequate mountaineering experience. The fallout is that in case of a disaster not only are some of them unable to manage but they also hold up others, putting them in harm’s way. The commercial operations have led to the Everest being called the world’s highest garbage dump as many climbers discard non-critical gear, used oxygen cylinders, plastic bottles, cans, batteries, food wrappings, fecal matter and kitchen waste on the mountains. It is unlikely, however, that this season’s tragedies will deter future summiteers, as the hypnotic lure remains intact. But the authorities must learn from this year’s tragedies and work out an optimum number of climbers and strengthen safety measures.

223)

Select the INCORRECT Option.
‘Into Thin Air’ is _____

SSC CGL 2019
A)

a best- selling book.

B)

based on an unexpected storm in the Himalayas.

C)

an account of the death of eight people in a single day.

D)

an incident that happened in 1999.

224)

Identify the INCORRECT OPTION.
The Everest has become the ‘highest garbage dump’ as many climbers leave behind ______

SSC CGL 2019
A)

kitchen waste

B)

protective clothing.

C)

empty food cans and bottles

D)

spent oxygen tanks

225)

How are amateur mountaineers a threat to others?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Amateurs are dependent on their support teams and cannot manage anything on their own.

B)

Amateurs, because of their inexperience and slow pace, are exposed to all kinds of hazards.

C)

Amateurs need specialized equipment to make up for their inexperience.

D)

Amateurs hold up other mountaineers in case of unforeseen disasters because they are not self-reliant.

226)

If an amateur mountaineer is one who climbs mountains as a hobby, which word in the text, describes an experienced one.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

reckless mountaineer

B)

ex-soldier climber

C)

adventure climber

D)

hardened mountaineer

227)

Choose the factor, which was NOT responsible for the death of mountaineers in May, 2019.

, Avg: 00:32 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Dehydration

B)

Lack of food

C)

Lack of oxygen

D)

Frost bite and exhaustion

228)

Why, according to the text, do most climbers prefer to climb the Everest from Nepal side?

, Avg: 00:24 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Nepali people are keen to help the climbers because this is their only way to earn money.

B)

International mountaineers are not allowed in Chinese territory.

C)

Nepal provides better logistical support than India.

D)

Climbing the Everest from Nepal side is cheaper than the Tibet side.

229)

Why was the Nepal Government criticized recently?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

For not providing optimum facilities to the mountaineers.

B)

For charging a hefty fee to issue a permit.

C)

For allowing too many tour operators at the Everest Base Camp Site.

D)

For issuing 381permits to aspiring climbers.

230)

What image has Nirmal Purja’s viral photograph captured?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

A long queue of climbers on the final stretch of a steep slope.

B)

Dead bodies of mountaineers on the route of the highest peak.

C)

The accumulated garbage on the mountain slopes.

D)

Exhausted mountaineers falling unconscious on the way up.

231)

Fill in the blank to complete the statement.
In 2019 ______ people have lost their lives on Mt. Everest.

, Avg: 00:36 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

eleven

B)

eight

C)

nine

D)

ten

232)

What is the theme of this newspaper editorial?
Select the most appropriate combination of factors given below.
a. Overcrowding of Mount Everest on 22nd May, 2019.
b. The urgent necessity to introduce and implement adequate safety measures to prevent man-made disasters.
c. Not to treat the ascent of the highest peak as an adventure sport.
d. Refuse permits to amateur climbers.
e. Disallow tour operating companies from crowding the base-camp.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

c & d

B)

b & c

C)

a & e

D)

a & b

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Parents all over Iceland’s capital Reykjavik embark on a two-hour evening walk around their neighbourhood every weekend, checking on youth hangouts as a 10 pm curfew approaches. The walk in Reykjavik is one step toward Iceland’s success into turning around a crisis in teenage drinking.
Focusing on local participation and promoting more music and sports options for students, the island nation in the North Atlantic has dried up a teenage culture of drinking and smoking. Icelandic teenagers now have one of the lowest rates of substance abuse in Europe.
The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis, the institute pioneering the project for the past two decades, says it currently advises 100 communities in 23 countries, from Finland to Chile, on cutting teenage substance abuse. “The key to success is to create healthy communities and by that get healthy individuals, ” said Inga Dora Sigfusdottir, a sociology professor who founded t he Youth of Iceland programme, which now has rebranded as Planet Youth.
The secret, she says, is to keep young people busy and parents engaged without talking much about drugs or alcohol. That stands in sharp contrast to other anti-abuse programmes, which try to sway teenagers with school lectures and scary, disgusting ads showing smokers’ rotten lungs or eggs in a frying pan to represent an intoxicated brain.
“Telling teenagers not to use drugs can backlash and actually get them curious to try them,” Ms Sigfusdottir said. In 1999, when thousands of teenagers would gather in Reykjavik every weekend, surveys showed 56% of Icelandic 16-year-olds drank alcohol and about as many had tried smoking.
Years later, Iceland has the lowest rates for drinking and smoking among the 35 countries measured in the 2015 European School Survey Project on Alcohol and Other Drugs.
On average, 80% of European 16-year-olds have tasted alcohol at least once, compared with 35% in Iceland, the only country where more than half of those students completely abstains from alcohol.
Denmark, another wealthy Nordic country, has the highest rates of teenage drinking, along with Greece, Hungary and the Czech Republic, where 92% to 96% have consumed alcohol.
In the US, teen drinking is a significant health concern, because many US teenagers are driving cars and do not have access to good public transport like teenagers in Europe.
Reykjavik mayor Dagur B. Eggertsson said the Icelandic plan “is all about society giving better options” for teens than substance abuse. He believes the wide variety of opportunities that now keep students busy and inspired has dramatically altered the country’s youth culture.
Local municipalities like Reykjavik have invested in sport halls, music schools and youth centres.To make the programmes widely available, parents are offered a 500 US dollar annual voucher toward sports or music programmes for their children.
Researchers say the Planet Youth prevention model is evolving constantly because it is based on annual surveys to detect trends and measure policy effectiveness. By law, introduced when Icelandic police routinely dealt with alcohol-fuelled street gatherings, children under 12 are not allowed to be outside after 8pm without parents and those 13 to 16 not past 10pm.
“We tell the kids if they are out too late, polite and nice, and then they go home,” said Heidar Atlason, a veteran member of the patrol. Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students.

233)

‘Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students.’ This means -

, Avg: 00:32 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

parents are not motivated to get involved in the programme.

B)

students are not bothered about the efforts made for them.

C)

the programme is having the right impact on teenagers.

D)

authorities are disappointed that the programme has failed.

234)

The word from the passage that means ‘change the image of an organisation or program’ is

SSC CGL 2019
A)

abstain

B)

rebrand

C)

invest

D)

embark

235)

From the passage one can conclude that

SSC CGL 2019
A)

bad habits can be checked by engaging teens in alternative activities.

B)

by showing smokers’ diseased lungs to teens, parents can influence them.

C)

parents must pay for sports and other activities for their children.

D)

strict punishment is needed as it acts as a deterrent.

236)

Which of the following does not contribute to the success of Planet Youth programme?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Enacting laws against late night movement of teenagers

B)

Arranging street gatherings of teenagers

C)

Arranging opportunities for music, sports etc.

D)

Ensuring parental control and influence

237)

The programme Planet Youth was started by

SSC CGL 2019
A)

The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis

B)

the local municipality of Reykjavik

C)

Inga Dora Sigfusdottir

D)

Dagur B. Eggertsson

238)

"Cutting teenage substance abuse" refers to

SSC CGL 2019
A)

teenagers consuming hazardous substances such as alcohol and drugs.

B)

parents shaming their young children for their bad habits.

C)

reducing consumption of drugs and alcohol among young adults.

D)

teenagers who consume alcohol abusing their parents.

239)

Teenage drinking in many countries like Denmark, Greece, Hungary, etc has been reported as

SSC CGL 2019
A)

completely eradicated.

B)

the lowest in the world.

C)

low compared to Iceland.

D)

the highest in the world.

240)

The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis does the work of

SSC CGL 2019
A)

showing teenagers anti-abuse programmes, which stop teenagers from drinking.

B)

advising many countries on controlling use of drugs etc. by young adults

C)

legally allowing children 12 years and more to remain outside their homes after 6 pm.

D)

going around at night with patrolling groups in many European countries.

241)

What is dramatic about the figures of teenage drinking in Iceland?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

They’ve remained the same over the years

B)

They’ve become the lowest in Europe

C)

They’ve gone up by 36%

D)

They’ve shot down by 96%

242)

Parents in Reykjavik take an evening walk at night in order to

SSC CGL 2019
A)

remain fit and healthy by avoiding drinking at night

B)

keep a watch on teenagers to ensure they don’t get into the habit of drinking

C)

meet other parents to know and discuss how to control teenagers

D)

enjoy the evening stroll with other parents after dinner

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
Dust storms of May 2018, in Northern India, contributed to the deteriorating air quality in the region and the capital city of Delhi, with implications for human health, a study found. The high death toll from the severe dust storms that lashed the region was mainly attributed to the intense winds, which surprised even scientists and meteorologists. But apart from the immediate damage to life and property, drastic changes in air quality from the dust engulfing the region affected far more people with potential implications for human health, stated a team of researchers who analysed the impact of the spell of dust storms that struck the region that month. They
reported increases in particulate matter, mainly in Delhi and urged for an early warning system.
Dust storms commonly occur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains - the fertile plains in northern India that stretch all the way to the East - from March to May, the pre-monsoon season. Westerly winds typically bring loose sand and soil particles, picked up from the Arabian Peninsula or the Thar Desert in North Western India, to the Indo-Gangetic Plains. The dust tends to worsen air quality over the Indo-Gangetic Plains, home to around 900 million people, which can have far-reaching effects on human health. While dust storms are a regular feature in the region, the May 2018 dust storms specifically had a death toll of about 100 people, with around 200 people injured.
“We are concerned that the dust impacts the health of people who get exposed,” said a senior professor. However, he also observed that scattered rains occurring soon after the dust storms tend to clean up the dust, improving air quality. During October-November, densely populated cities like Delhi and Kanpur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains are vulnerable to wind borne long-range air pollution from crop residue burning in the North, and now this study “shows the effect of dust storms during the March-May time frame,” Sarkar pointed out. “This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot in terms of it being targeted by these different hazardous conditions which are mostly outsourced from other areas.”

243)

Choose the correct sequence in which events take place -

, Avg: 00:27 , 60% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Strong winds- poor air quality -dust storms- - death and disease

B)

Dust storms- poor air quality- strong winds -death and disease

C)

Dust storms - death and disease-strong winds- poor air quality

D)

Strong winds- dust storms- poor air quality- death and disease

244)

By saying, ‘This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot’ the writer refers to the fact that

, Avg: 00:22 , 16% SSC CGL 2019
A)

the Indo- Gangetic valley receives its pollution from other areas or factors.

B)

the valley is affected by pollution caused by hazardous industries.

C)

intense winds in the valley surprise even scientists and meteorologists.

D)

studies find that only the valley faces pollution all year round.

245)

The notable fact about pollution in Oct to Nov is that _____

, Avg: 00:27 , 83% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Westerly winds bring loose sand and soil particles

B)

dust storms are a regular feature.

C)

it is caused by crop burning in North India.

D)

it is caused by the winds from Thar Desert.

246)

Dust storms are caused by

, Avg: 00:27 , 62% SSC CGL 2019
A)

winds from the North.

B)

winds from the South.

C)

Westerly winds.

D)

Easterly winds.

247)

Dust storms in Delhi are a cause of concern as they

, Avg: 02:31 , 88% SSC CGL 2019
A)

cause strong winds.

B)

affect Delhi alone.

C)

challenge scientists.

D)

are a health hazard.

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Comprehension:
A great water scarcity looms over India; by 2025 Indians will get just over half the water they get today. This grave problem has a simple solution. Catch the rain as it falls, and the water crisis will disappear. However, about 80 per cent of India’s rainfall buckets down during the three months of the monsoons. As yet, no government programmer has discovered how to store this water.
‘Dying Wisdom’, a seven-year countryside study by Delhi’s Centre for Science and Environment, reveals that ruins of amazing ancient technologies survive in every corner of India. Drip-irrigation systems of bamboo pipes in Meghalaya; ‘kunds’, underground tanks in Rajasthan; ‘pynes’, water channels built by tribals in Bihar; and thousands of open-water bodies down south are all superb examples of rain water harvesting systems. Even today, tanks called ‘eris’ in Tamil Nadu water one-third of the state’s irrigated area. Unfortunately, governmental planners mostly refuse to acknowledge the potential of these low-cost systems, concentrating on costly dams and canals.
Few cities have lost touch with their ecological traditions as fast-and with as damaging results-as Bangalore. Only 17 of its water bodies struggle to survive in a city where once 200 lakes, ponds and wetlands cooled the city and recharged its ground water. The threats continue unabated as the relentless march of urbanization shows no sign of stopping.

248)

The people in ancient India had amazing technology to harvest water. This shows that

, Avg: 00:20 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

they understood the significance of water.

B)

it used to rain heavily.

C)

they did not know how to build dams.

D)

water was scarce at that time.

249)

Which of the following is not a low cost technology in water usage?

, Avg: 00:25 , 50% SSC CGL 2019
A)

water channels

B)

drip-irrigation

C)

underground tanks

D)

dams and canals

250)

Which State uses bamboo pipes for the drip irrigation system?

, Avg: 00:12 , 83% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Bihar

B)

Rajasthan

C)

Meghalaya

D)

Tamil Nadu

251)

What, according to the passage, is the primary reason for the water shortage?

, Avg: 00:24 , 66% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Lack of means to store rainwater

B)

Government’s ignorance of the situation

C)

Less rainfall in the country

D)

Carelessness of people in using water

252)

‘This grave problem' in the passage refers to

, Avg: 01:10 , 83% SSC CGL 2019
A)

short monsoon span

B)

rainfall

C)

storage of water

D)

water crisis

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Comprehension:
LAST WEEK, scientists from all corners of India descended on Ahmedabad to remember the architect of India’s space programme, a man whom the late president, APJ Abdul Kalam, had famously termed “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”.
They were there to launch celebrations on the birth centenary of Vikram Sarabhai, 47 years after his death at the age of 52, by when he had founded 38 institutions that are now leaders in space research, physics, management and performing arts.
Former director of the Space Applications Centre Pramod Kale was a 19-year old science graduate from MS University of Baroda, besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai. “In May 1960, I went to Ahmedabad to meet Dr. Sarabhai. “I met him and ended up talking for two hours,” Kale says.
By June that year, Kale had done exactly as Sarabhai had advised him and taken up a master’s course at Gujarat University. In 1962, when Sarabhai was looking at studying the magnetic equator, Kale went on to be among the first few to go to NASA to learn radar tracking. 

The room resounded with many such memories. Former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan remembered how they ran into some trouble at the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), founded in 1947 by Sarabhai, in their attempts to fly a balloon at 4 am, when in sailed Sarabhai. “He told us had the flight been successful, you would not have learnt even half of what you learnt because of that initial
problem,” said Kasturirangan.
Many of those who had collected in Ahmedabad in Sarabhai’s memory were teenagers when they first met him. Gandhinagar-based entrepreneur K Subramanian was 19 and a student of National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli, working on a summer project at PRL, when a man in a kurta-pyjama walked in and began turning all the wastepaper bins upside down, inspecting their contents and putting them back again. “I asked a colleague who that was and was told it is Dr Vikram Sarabhai. He had come to check how much waste the lab was generating,” laughs Subramanian.

Born to Ambalal and Sarla Devi, Ahmedabad’s leading textile-mill owners, Vikram Sarabhai showed creative promise early. He was 15 when he built a working model of a train engine with the help of two engineers, which is now housed at the Community Science Centre (CSC) in Ahmedabad. The CSC was Vikram’s way of providing other children the privileges he had, of experimental research, says his son Kartikeya, 71, adding how his father wished to work with children at the science centre after he retired.
“He was essentially a researcher, and believed that people, especially children, should be allowed to think freely and come up with solutions on their own,” recalls Kartikeya, who founded the Centre for Environment Education in 1984. Kartikeya is carefully piecing together all the dog-eared notes he is discovering in the recesses of their three grand homes — Shanti Sadan, The Retreat and
Chidambaram.
To inspire the young to dream like Sarabhai, Kartikeya is building a permanent exhibition gallery on the Sabarmati Riverfront, expected to open this November.

253)

Where did K Subramanian come from to work at PRL?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Bangalore

B)

Baroda

C)

Ahmedabad

D)

Tiruchirappalli

254)

Who among the following went to NASA to study radar tracking?

, Avg: 00:47 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Pramod Kale

B)

K Subramanian

C)

K Kasturirangan

D)

Kartikeya

255)

‘He was a 19-year old science graduate besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai.’ ‘besotted’ here means.

, Avg: 00:17 , 88% SSC CGL 2019
A)

frantic

B)

wasted

C)

obsessed

D)

greedy

256)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

, Avg: 00:40 , 71% SSC CGL 2019
A)

The Sarabhai family owns three grand homes in Mumbai.

B)

Vikram Sarabhai’s son, Kartikeya, is now 71 years old.

C)

The names of Vikram Sarabhai’s parents were Ambalal and Sarla Devi.

D)

Vikram Sarabhai’s father was a textile mill owner.

257)

APJ Abdul Kalam called Vikram Sarabhai “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”. What does ‘Mahatma Gandhi’ mean here?

, Avg: 00:11 , 44% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Father

B)

Social reformer

C)

Revolutionary

D)

Architect

258)

How did Vikram Sarabhai provide under-privileged children the experience of experimental research?

, Avg: 01:34 , 71% SSC CGL 2019
A)

By initiating space research at PRL

B)

By founding Community Science Centre at Ahmedabad.

C)

By founding Physical Research Laboratory

D)

By providing them with scholarships in science

259)

Which statement shows that Vikram Sarabhai had a creative mind at an early age?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

He built a working model of a train engine at the age of 15.

B)

He founded the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL).

C)

He told the scientists that they learnt much more from problems than from success.

D)

He checked how much waste the lab was generating.

260)

Among the people who had gathered at Ahmedabad, who was the former chairman of ISRO?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Kartikeya

B)

K Subramanian

C)

K Kasturirangan

D)

Pramod Kale

261)

What is Vikram Sarabhai mainly known for?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

for being an entrepreneur in Ahmedabad

B)

for pioneering India’s space programme

C)

for founding 38 different institutions

D)

for establishing Community Science Centre

262)

What was the occasion for the gathering at Ahmedabad?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Foundation Day of Community Science Centre

B)

Launch of the celebrations of the Birth Centenary of Vikram Sarabhai

C)

Foundation Day of ISRO

D)

Birth Anniversary of India’s Space Programme

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.



Comprehension:
At a number of places in the Kashmir Valley, security forces have put coils of razor wire on roads to enforce restrictions on movement. Concertina wire or razor wire fences are used along territorial borders and in areas of conflict around the world, to keep out combatants, terrorists, or refugees.
The expandable spools of barbed or razor wire get their name from concertina, a hand-held musical instrument similar to the accordion, with bellows that expand and contract. 

Concertina wire coils were an improvisation on the barbed wire obstacles used during World War I. The flat, collapsible coils with intermittent barbs or blades were designed to be carried along by infantry, and deployed on battlefields to prevent or slow down enemy movement.
The Englishman Richard Newton is credited with creating the first barbed wire around 1845; the first patent for “a double wire clipped with diamond shaped barbs” was given to Louis François Janin of France. In the United States, the first patent was registered by Lucien B Smith on June 25, 1867, for a prairie fence made of fireproof iron wire. Michael Kelly twisted razor wires together to form a cable of wires.

 The American businessman Joseph F Glidden is considered to be the father of the modern barbed wire. He designed the wire with two intertwined strands held by sharp prongs at regular intervals.

Barbed wire was initially an agrarian fencing invention intended to confine cattle and sheep, which unlike lumber, was largely resistant to fire and bad weather. An advertorial published in the US in 1885 under the title ‘Why Barb Fencing Is Better Than Any Other’, argued that “it does not decay; boys cannot crawl through or over it; nor dogs; nor cats; nor any other animal; it watches with Argus eyes the inside and outside, up, down and lengthwise; it prevents the ‘ins’ from being ‘outs’, and the ‘outs’ from being ‘ins’, watches at day-break, at noontide, at sunset and all night long…”

 Barbed wire was put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish- American War, and by the British in the Second Boer War of 1899-1902 to confine the families of the Afrikaans-speaking Boer fighters.
World War I saw extensive use of barbed wire — and German military engineers are credited with improvising the earliest concertina coils on the battlefield. They spun the barbed wire into circles and simply spread it on the battlefield. Without using any support infrastructure like poles etc. this was more effective against the infantry charge by Allied soldiers.
The fence erected by India along the Line of Control to keep out terrorist infiltrators consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles. They are now commonly seen and are used to secure private properties as well.

263)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

The fence along the Indian Line of Control consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles.

B)

In the United States, the first patent was registered by Louis François Janin.

C)

It was Richard Newton, an Englishman, who invented the barbed wire around 1845.

D)

Barbed wire was first put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish-American War.

264)

Who first spread the barbed wires on the field without using the poles or any other support system?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

German military engineers

B)

British army

C)

American military

D)

Allied soldiers

265)

What was the initial purpose of inventing the barbed wire?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

to secure the borders of a country

B)

to keep the dogs and boys out of gardens

C)

to restrict the movement of trouble makers

D)

to confine cattle and sheep within an area

266)

Who is credited with creating the modern barbed wire?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Louise Francoise Janin

B)

Joseph F Glidden

C)

Lucien B Smith

D)

Richard Newton

267)

What is the main theme of the above passage?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

How barbed wire was patented

B)

The use of barbed wire in Jammu and Kashmir

C)

The use of barbed wire in agriculture

D)

The evolution and use of barbed wire

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Comprehension:

Nothing, not even the angry, red eruptions on her face and body, will stop Sneha from aiming for her “dream job”. “I love the Indian Army,” says the 18-year-old, as she sits by herself under one of the canopies at the Chhatrapati Shivaji Stadium of the Maratha Light Infantry Regimental Centre in Belagavi, Karnataka. Outside the enclosure, around 35 women run on the 400-m track.
A day earlier, Sneha had cleared her ground tests — a 1.6-km race that had to be completed in eight minutes or less, high jump and long jump — and physical fitness tests, when she was diagnosed with chickenpox. Now on medication for the pox, she is back at the stadium for a medical examination as part of the recruitment process. As she waits for her turn, isolated from the other women, Sneha, says, “I had no fever when I left home in Kerala. Even when I reached Belagavi and got these pimples, I did not think much of it. So I came for my physical and ground tests.”
Accompanied by her mother and uncle, Sneha, who is pursuing a computer course in her hometown Iritty, about 41 km from Kannur, made the 611-km journey from home to Belagavi spending eight hours in a bus and three hours on a train. She is among the 850-odd women, many of whom have travelled several hundred kilometers, to turn up at the first-ever recruitment rally for women to the Indian Army’s Corps of Military Police.
The recruitment of women as Soldier General Duty (Women Military Police) marks the first time that women will be taken in not only as officers, but as soldiers, giving them an opportunity to be involved in active military duties. As personnel of the military police, the women soldiers will be responsible for investigating offences such as molestation, theft, and rape; “assisting in the maintenance of good order and discipline”; and in custody and handling of prisoners of war — essentially combat-support operations.
The move is part of a slow opening up of avenues for women in the armed forces. In his Independence Day speech last year, Prime Minister Narendra Modi had said women officers recruited into the armed forces under the Short Service Commission would be given the option of taking up permanent commission — a “gift” to India’s “brave daughters”.

 Following a notification issued by the Army on April 25, around 15,000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi, the first of five such to be held across India to fill 100 positions in the Military Police. The Belagavi centre catered to candidates from the southern states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the Union Territories of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar and Puducherry. Of the 15,000 aspirants, about 3,000 were short-listed on the basis of their Class 10 marks, with the cut-off set at 86 per cent. Of the shortlisted candidates, only about one-third turned up at the Belagavi centre between August 1 and 5 at the date and time assigned to them. Just then, outside the enclosure where Sneha is sitting, a shrill whistle pierces the air and another batch of girls takes off — feet on the wet ground, mostly bare, making a dash for their place in history. “Does everybody understand English?” asks Major Chaudhry and the group of 30 women, sitting on red carpets on the ground, bellows: “Yes”.

268)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

About one third of the shortlisted candidates turned up at the Belagavi centre.

B)

Women were called on the basis of their class 10 marks.

C)

There are only 100 positions to be filled up.

D)

3000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi.

269)

Which of the following states were not covered by the Belagavi centre?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Karnataka and Kerala

B)

UTs of Puducherry, Lakshadweep and AN Islands

C)

Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

D)

Maharashtra and Goa

270)

Which of the following is NOT necessary to qualify for the recruitment in the armed forces?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

long jump and high jump

B)

1.6 meter race to be completed within 8 minutes

C)

to speak English

D)

Physical fitness tests

271)

Which of the following duties will be borne by women soldiers?
1. Investigating offences involving molestation, theft and rape.
2. Assisting in maintaining order and discipline.
3.Administrative jobs
4. Handling prisoners of war in custody.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

1, 2 and 3

B)

2, 3 and 4

C)

1, 2 and 4

D)

1, 2, 3 and 4

272)

In what way is ‘history’ being made in Belagavi?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Women have travelled from far-off places to turn up at the recruitment rally.

B)

This rally marks the first time that women will be taken in as soldiers.

C)

Belagavi rally is the first of the five to be held across India.

D)

The rally is a result of the PM’s Independence Day speech last year.

273)

What gift was announced by the PM in his Independence Day speech last year for the brave daughters of the country?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Women will be recruited in armed forces.

B)

Women will be recruited as soldiers in the Military police.

C)

Women officers will be able to opt for permanent commission in the armed forces.

D)

Women will have an opportunity to be involved in active military duties.

274)

How many women are participating at the recruitment rally at Belagavi?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

100

B)

850

C)

3000

D)

15000

275)

Why are there eruptions on Sneha’s face?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

She is tired and hot after the run of 400 meters.

B)

She has pimples on her face.

C)

She has got the chicken pox.

D)

She is angry over the long wait.

276)

Which city does Sneha come from?

, Avg: 01:16 , 50% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Kannur, Kerala

B)

Kozhikode, Kerala

C)

Iritty, Kerala

D)

Belagavi, Karnataka

277)

What is the occasion being talked about in the passage?

, Avg: 00:48 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Recruitment of women in the Indian Army

B)

Medical examination of the women soldiers of the Indian Army

C)

Sports event for the women working in the Indian Army

D)

An assembly of the women personnel of the Indian Army

The United Kingdom’s Social Mobility Commission study reports that disadvantaged children in England are being priced out of a cultural hinterland. Children aged 10-15 from low-income families are three times less likely than wealthier peers to engage in out-of-school musical activities, such as learning an instrument etc. 

There were also differences according to race - 4% of British Pakistani children took part in music classes, compared with 28% of Indian children and 20% of white children - and regional divides: 9% of children in north-east England played a musical instrument, compared with 22% in the south-east.
Disadvantaged children are also more likely to miss out on extracurricular sports (football, boxing, cricket) and drama, dance and art. The commission set out recommendations, including bursaries, better funding and support for schools - let’s hope they’re taken on board. As well as the activities themselves, children are missing out on other crucial gains including confidence-building, team spirit and social skill, and are less likely to go on to higher education.
Extracurricular activities tend to cost money, but there are also problems with a lack of availability and access, such as schools being unable to afford to run after-school clubs or stay open during holidays. Another barrier is the kids’ “fear of not fitting in”. In this sense, certain children are self-excluding from, say, learning an instrument, singing in a choir, playing cricket or acting. They decide by themselves that they’re “undeserving” of music, sport, art and drama. Unbelievably, in 2019, children as young as 10 are already hardwired with the selflimiting poverty notion of “not for the likes of us”.
This is heartbreaking. It’s hardly news that life is tougher for poorer children, but it’s an outrage if all sense of curiosity, artistry and playfulness is knocked out of them so early. Something is wrong if better-off children feel entitled to explore and participate in areas that interest and excite them, while the disadvantaged are cast from the start as cultural wallflowers - doomed to sit out every dance.
This isn’t about every child learning the piano or violin (but why not?), it’s about sowing the seeds for a cultural hinterland that will sustain and enrich them for life. It’s about people exploring their passions and refusing to have their horizons artificially limited. Regardless of circumstances, all children should know that their faces “fit” - automatically and forever. Culture belongs to everyone.

278)

According to the author, what is truly heart- breaking and damaging for the kids is that -

, Avg: 00:14 , 33% SSC CGL 2019
A)

parents don’t have money to pay for any additional classes for their children.

B)

teachers are told not to offer these opportunities as they are not tested.

C)

schools wish to offer activities but don’t have funds.

D)

children themselves feel that the activities are not fit for the likes of them.

279)

How will a wholesome education including arts and sports not benefit the disadvantaged?

, Avg: 00:18 , 77% SSC CGL 2019
A)

Children will get exposure to arts and sports.

B)

Children will no longer have the fear of not fitting in.

C)

Children will have feelings of low self-esteem and self-exclusion.

D)

Children will explore play and learning outside of class.

280)

Pick out a phrase or a word which means the same as- a group of people considered to be superior to others because of their social standing or wealth

, Avg: 00:11 , 36% SSC CGL 2019
A)

disadvantaged

B)

cultural wallflowers

C)

hard-wired

D)

elitist

281)

According to the passage which of the following is not the correct reason- Exposure to cultural activities and sports at a young age is very important for children because it-

, Avg: 00:19 , 80% SSC CGL 2019
A)

brings about differences among children.

B)

leads children to explore their talents.

C)

builds team spirit and social skills.

D)

helps in confidence building.

282)

The probability of a child in United Kingdom getting opportunities to engage in cultural and sports activities depends on-
1 parental economic background
2 whether one parent is British
3 whether parents have a university education
4 kind of school and funding available
Of the above points which are correct

, Avg: 03:11 , 50% SSC CGL 2019
A)

1 & 4

B)

2 & 4

C)

1 & 2

D)

3 & 4

According to a new American study headed by Dr. Willis, it has been found that people who exercise in the morning seem to lose more weight than people completing the same workouts later in the day.
These findings help shed light on the vexing issue of why some people shed considerable weight with exercise and others almost none. The study adds to the growing body of science suggesting that the timing of various activities, including exercise, could affect how those activities affect us.
The relationship between exercise and body weight is somewhat befuddling. Multiple past studies show that a majority of people who take up exercise to lose weight drop fewer pounds than would be expected, given how many calories they are burning during their workouts. 

Some gain weight. But a few respond quite well, shedding pound after pound with the same exercise regimen that prompts others to add inches.
The Midwest Trial 2, was conducted in the University of Kansas, U.S. on how regular, supervised exercise influences body weight.
The trial involved 100 overweight, previously inactive young men and women who were made to work out five times a week at a physiology lab, jogging or otherwise sweating until they had burned up to 600 calories per session.
After 10 months of this regimen, almost everyone had dropped pounds. But the extent of their losses fluctuated wildly, even though everyone was doing the same, supervised workout. A team of researchers started brainstorming what could be responsible for the enormous variability in the weight loss.
They hit upon activity timing. They decided to do a Follow -up study of the Mid West Trial 2. In this new study,the Mid West Trial 2 Follow up study the researchers now studied a team of participants who could visit the gym whenever they wished between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m. They also tracked everyone’s calorie intakes and daily movement habits throughout the 10 months. They knew, too, whether and by how much people’s weights had changed. 

Now, they checked weight change against exercise schedules and quickly noticed a consistent pattern.
Those people who usually worked out before noon had lost more weight, on average, than the men and women who typically exercised after 3 p.m.
The researchers uncovered a few other, possibly relevant differences between the morning and late-day exercisers. The early-exercise group tended to be slightly more active throughout the day, taking more steps in total than those who worked out later. They also ate less. 

These factors may cumulatively have contributed to the striking differences in how many pounds people lost, Dr. Willis says.
Thus it seems that people who worked out before noon lost more weight, on average, than those who typically exercised after 3 p.m.
But Dr. Willis also points out that most of those who worked out later in the day did lose weight, even if not as much as the larkish exercisers, and almost certainly became healthier. “I would not want anyone to think that it’s not worth exercising if you can’t do it first thing in the morning,” he says. “Any exercise, at any time of day, is going to be better than none.”

283)

What would Dr. Willis say to someone who has given up exercising because they cannot do so in the morning?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

Exercise is good only in the morning.

B)

Exercise only with a trainer.

C)

Any exercise is better than none.

D)

Evening is the worst time to exercise.

284)

Find one word in the passage which means the same as 'confusing'.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

brainstorming

B)

vexing

C)

befuddling

D)

striking

285)

Find one word which means the same as the following.
a set of rules about food and diet that someone follows

SSC CGL 2019
A)

catalogue

B)

regiment

C)

regimen

D)

fundamental

286)

Select the correct option.
By ‘larkish exercisers’ the writer refers to people who-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

love to see the lark in the morning.

B)

like to exercise late with the larks.

C)

like to sing in the morning.

D)

exercise in the morning.

287)

Select the option which is not true.
The successful weight losers in the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study ____________

SSC CGL 2019
A)

remained active.

B)

slept more.

C)

walked more.

D)

ate less.

288)

The finding of the Mid West Trial 2 Follow- up study was that the best time for exercise was-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

noon to 3 p.m.

B)

between 3-7 p.m.

C)

before noon.

D)

7 p.m. onwards.

289)

What was the difference between the Mid West Trial 2 study and the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study that was taken up later?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

The duration of the follow up study was longer.

B)

The calorie intake and the time of exercise were examined.

C)

Participants of the study stayed in the premises.

D)

Face to face interviews were conducted.

290)

Select the option that is not true as per the passage.
Several studies show that as a result of the workout-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

the majority lost a little weight.

B)

a few had the desired weight loss.

C)

some gained some weight.

D)

most gained a lot of weight.

291)

The Mid West Trial 2 duration was -

SSC CGL 2019
A)

12 months

B)

6 months

C)

18 months

D)

10 months

292)

The Mid West Trail 2 was a

SSC CGL 2019
A)

A European study on 100 participants who exercised 7 times a week and burnt 800 calories.

B)

Canadian study on 500 participants who exercised 6 times a week and burnt 600 calories.

C)

U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 5 times a week and burnt 600 calories.

D)

U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 3 times a week and burnt 300 calories.

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
A few years ago it seemed as if the moment for stand-up comedy had arrived. By the end of 2017, stand-up comedians were on the cover of a magazine, signaling the coming of age of the industry.
The stand-up game attracted investors in the right places: on platforms like Netflix and Amazon Prime, apart from increasing open mic schedules in venues across cities. Two major companies Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club arrived on the scene and were game changers.
But despite a heady start, the comic landscape has changed drastically today with stand- up comedians feeling the brunt of faltering payments and cancelled shows.

 Despite a good start, the Indian stand-up industry is still unorganized and uncertain for comics.
If you ask viral comic Kunal Kamra about the scene, he says that the audience isn’t really ‘invested’ in the art form at the moment and that only ten or twenty tickets would sell if comics weren’t on the internet promoting themselves. And this is despite the surge in open mics and more stand-ups coming in.
Last year, new-age Indian comedy’s reputation came under strain when allegations under the #MeToo movement exposed a darker side of the circuit. Since then, the big three comedy groups: All India Bakchod, SNG Comedy and East India Comedy, have either disbanded or had founding members quit.
Jeeya Sethi, a leading comedian says, “It’s a good thing that these -collectives have died because they mostly had men with no women being showcased.”
Sethi adds saying that it isn’t as easy as it sounds. “In a fledgling industry, a viral YouTube video isn’t a sign that you’ve made it”. Craft takes time. Every comic who does two open mics calls himself a comedian. In my opinion, you have to do comedy for more than 20 years to be a comic. It takes at least five years to find your voice.”

293)

Sethi believes that-
1. The road to success is only through YouTube.
2. A a viral YouTube video is a sign of success.
3. Comedy is an art form and takes hard work and patience.
4. The true comic artist takes years to find one’s voice.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

1 & 3

B)

2 & 4

C)

1 & 2

D)

3 & 4

294)

How has the situation been reversed from the early success of stand-up comedy?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

SNG Comedy and East India Comedy support the comedians.

B)

Comedians are being offered double the price asked by them.

C)

Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club are offering bigger platforms to comedians.

D)

Comedy groups are packing up and founders are resigning.

295)

Select the word which means the same as ‘fledgling’ in the given context-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

a nervous person who frets a lot

B)

a fairly new company or industry

C)

a mature person who performs well

D)

a successful and established venture

296)

The stand-up comedy show had a wonderful start because-
1. Open mic shows were held in venues across cities.
2. Leading companies came forward to support artists.
3. Payments to artists were prompt and good.
4. Some Bollywood directors offered them roles.
5. Comedians were given good media coverage.

SSC CGL 2019
A)

3, 4 & 5

B)

1, 2 & 5

C)

2, 4 & 5

D)

2, 3 & 4

297)

By saying ‘the audience has not invested in the stand-up comedy art form’ the author means that-

SSC CGL 2019
A)

the audience prefers to watch only women comedians.

B)

it is a new art form and it will take time to build an audience.

C)

the audience don’t wish to develop a sense of humour.

D)

there are faltering payments and cancelled shows.

Instructions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Comprehension:
The four-year tiger census report, Status of Tigers in India, 2018, released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi shows numbers of the cat have increased across all landscapes.
The Global Tiger Forum, an international collaboration of tiger-bearing countries, has set a goal of doubling the count of wild tigers by 2022. More than 80% of the world’s wild tigers are in India, and it’s crucial to keep track of their numbers.
The total count in 2018 has risen to 2,967 from 2,226 in 2014 — an increase of 741 individuals an increase of 33%, in four years.
This is by far the biggest increase in terms of both numbers and percentage since the four?yearly census using camera traps and the capture-mark-recapture method began in 2006. The 2018 figure has a great degree of credibility because, according to the report, as many as 2,461 individual tigers (83% of the total) have actually been photographed by trap cameras. In 2014, only 1,540 individuals (69%) were photographed.

The tiger census is needed because the tiger sits at the peak of the food chain, and its conservation is important to ensure the well-being of the forest ecosystem. The tiger estimation exercise includes habitat assessment and prey estimation. The numbers reflect the success or failure of conservation efforts. This is an especially important indicator in a fast-growing economy like India where the pressures of development often run counter to the demands of conservation.
Where has the tiger population increased the most?
The biggest increase has been in Madhya Pradesh — a massive 218 individuals (71%) from 308 in 2014 to 526.
However, since tigers keep moving between states, conservationists prefer to talk about tiger numbers in terms of landscapes.
So, why have the numbers gone up?
The success owes a lot to increased vigilance and conservation efforts by the Forest Department. From 28 in 2006, the number of tiger reserves went up to 50 in 2018, extending protection to larger numbers of tigers over the years. Healthy increases in core area populations eventually lead to migrations to areas outside the core; this is why the 2018 census has found tigers in newer areas. Over the years, there has been increased focus on tigers even in the areas under the territorial and commercial forestry arms of Forest Departments.
The other important reason is increased vigilance, and the fact that organized poaching rackets have been all but crushed. According to Nitin Desai of Wildlife Protection Society of India, there has been no organized poaching by traditional gangs in Central Indian landscapes since 2013.
The increased protection has encouraged the tiger to breed. Tigers are fast breeders when conditions are conducive.
The rehabilitation of villages outside core areas in many parts of the country has led to the availability of more inviolate space for tigers.
Also, because estimation exercises have become increasingly more accurate over the years, it is possible that many tigers that eluded enumerators in earlier exercises were counted this time.

298)

Pick out a word that is similar in meaning to: CONDUCIVE

SSC CGL 2019
A)

reclusive

B)

helpful

C)

unfavorable

D)

hindering

299)

What has been the impact of providing inviolate spaces for tigers?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

The poachers have been caught in these spaces very easily.

B)

The number of villagers killed by man eater tigers has increased.

C)

Tiger numbers have increased due to safe breeding places.

D)

Tigers have moved from Uttar Pradesh to Madhya Pradesh.

300)

Which of the following statements is not true as per the passage?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

There are more reliable ways of data collection

B)

Forest departments have become more watchful

C)

The tiger reserves have increased to 100 in 2018

D)

Poaching gangs have been reduced drastically

301)

What is the tiger population of Madhya Pradesh?

SSC CGL 2019
A)

28

B)

741

C)

50

D)

526

302)

Researchers refer to places where tigers are found not by states but by the term-

, Avg: 00:34 , 66% SSC CGL 2019
A)

green belts

B)

deep forests

C)

landscapes

D)

ecosystems

303)

The survival of the tiger is vital today because?

, Avg: 01:45 , 80% SSC CGL 2019
A)

it is no longer a threat to the villagers' safety.

B)

it is central to the food chain and the eco system.

C)

it promotes tourism in India and increases revenue.

D)

it is now on the verge of extinction.

304)

2018 census on the big cat has been the most reliable because?

, Avg: 01:22 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

it photographed 1540 tigers.

B)

it photographed 83% of the tigers.

C)

it photographed all living tigers of India.

D)

it only uses the capture-mark-recapture method.

305)

The year 2022 marks the target date for -

, Avg: 01:00 , 100% SSC CGL 2019
A)

tripling the world tiger population.

B)

tripling India's tiger population.

C)

doubling the count of world tiger population.

D)

doubling the count of India's tiger population.

306)

The biggest increase in tiger population has been between the years.

, Avg: 00:21 , 66% SSC CGL 2019
A)

2014-2018

B)

2002-2006

C)

2006-2010

D)

2010-2014

307)

The Global Tiger Forum comprises -

, Avg: 00:46 , 50% SSC CGL 2019
A)

countries which have tigers.

B)

National Geographic and World Wildlife Fund.

C)

all countries of the United Nations.

D)

America and the European Union.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


The stark observation made in the Economic Survey of 2015-16 that “Indian agriculture, is in a way, a victim of its own past success – especially the green revolution”, shows the dark reality of the agriculture sector at present and the havoc that has been wreaked by the green revolution. The green revolution, which is often characterised by the introduction of high-yielding variety of seeds and fertilisers, undoubtedly increased the productivity of land considerably. But the growth in the productivity has been stagnant in recent years, resulting in a significant decline in the income of farmers. There have also been negative environmental effects in the form of depleting water table, emission of greenhouse gases, and the contamination of surface and ground water. Needless to say, the agriculture sector is in a state of distress, which is severely affecting peasants and marginal farmers, and urgent policy interventions are required to protect their interests. The government has responded to the problem by constituting a panel, which will recommend ways to double the income of farmers by 2022. While this may be an overtly ambitious target, if we want to boost stagnated agricultural growth a shift has to be made from food security of the nation to income security of the farmers. However, there are many hurdles that have to be crossed if we want to achieve this objective. The first major barrier to overcome is declining productivity. Data from 2013 reveals that India’s average yield of cereal per hectare is far less than that of many countries (including several low income countries), but the difference is huge when compared to China. For instance, our average yield per hectare is 39% below than that of China and for rice this figure is 46%. Even Bangladesh, Vietnam and Indonesia fare better than India in case of rice yield. Further, there is a huge inter-regional variation; the wheat and rice yield from Haryana and Punjab is much higher than from the other states. In order to cross the declining productivity barrier there is a need to herald a rainbow revolution by making a shift from wheat-rice cycle to other cereals and pulses. Since wheat and rice coupled with other crops are backed by minimum support prices (MSP) and input subsidy (whether water, fertiliser or power) regime, there is a huge incentive for the farmers in the irrigated region of Northwest India to grow these crops.

308)

As per the passage, what is the main cause of decline in the income of farmers?

, Avg: 00:10 , 83% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Emission of greenhouse gases

B)

Decline in agricultural production

C)

Depleting water table

D)

Contamination of ground water

309)

The purpose of this passage is to:

, Avg: 00:20 , 62% SSC CGL 2020
A)

suggest measures for improving the farmer's lot

B)

compare Indian agriculture with that of other countries

C)

talk about the consequences of the green revolution

D)

express the anguish of the farmers

310)

What does the author suggest to enhance the income of the farmers?

, Avg: 00:31 , 18% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Constitute a panel to suggest ways to double the income

B)

Give subsidies on water, fertilizers and power

C)

Shift wheat-rice cycle to include other cereals and pulses

D)

Provide income security to the farmers

311)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

, Avg: 00:20 , 33% SSC CGL 2020
A)

High yielding seeds and fertilizers were a hallmark of green revolution.

B)

The rice yield in India is below that of China by 39%.

C)

The growth in productivity has stagnated today.

D)

In Northwest India, farmers get subsidies on rice, wheat and other crops.

312)

As per the passage, which country has the highest yield of rice per hectare?

, Avg: 00:53 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Vietnam

B)

Bangladesh

C)

China

D)

Indonesia

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


The giraffe is the tallest land mammal alive, its long legs and neck contributing to its impressive stature. Males can be up to 18ft (5.5m tall), females a little less. In the wild, these beautiful creatures stretch their necks beyond those of antelope, kudu and even elephants to strip leaves from the untouched upper reaches of trees. The French zoologist Jean-Baptiste Lamarck is usually credited as the first person to suggest that long necks have evolved in giraffes because they allow them to get to the parts other herbivores cannot reach. As the giraffe lives "in places where the soil is nearly always arid and barren, it is obliged to browse on the leaves of trees and to make constant efforts to reach them," he wrote in his 1809 book ‘Philosophie Zoologique’. "From this habit long maintained in all its race, it has resulted that the animal's fore-legs have become longer than its hind legs, and that its neck is lengthened." The English naturalist Charles Darwin also thought the giraffe's extraordinary legs and neck must have something to do with foraging. "The giraffe, by its lofty stature, much elongated neck, fore-legs, head and tongue, has its whole frame beautifully adapted for browsing on the higher branches of trees," he wrote in ‘On the Origin of Species’ in 1859. In short, giraffes' long necks are the result of generation upon generation of repeated stretching and inheritance. During the dry season when feeding competition should be most intense giraffe generally feed from low shrubs, not tall trees. What's more, giraffes feed most often and faster with their necks bent. Male giraffes often fight for access to females, a ritual referred to as "necking". The rivals stand flank to flank, then start to whack each other with their heads. The top or back of the well-armoured skull is used as a club to strike the neck, chest, ribs, or legs of the opponent with a force capable of knocking a competitor off balance or unconscious. The largest males usually win these battles and do most of the breeding, says zoologist Anne Innis Dagg of the University of Waterloo in Ontario, Canada, who has been studying giraffes since the 1950s. "The other giraffes don't get much breeding opportunity." There is also evidence that females are more receptive to advances from larger males.

313)

How does a giraffe knock its opponent off balance or unconscious?

, Avg: 00:36 , 83% SSC CGL 2020
A)

By pulling the legs of the opponent

B)

By using its head as a club and hitting the opponent

C)

By biting the opponent’s neck, chest and ribs

D)

By entangling its neck in the opponent’s neck

314)

According to the passage, ‘necking’ is the:

, Avg: 00:17 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

repeated stretching of the neck

B)

elongation of the giraffe's neck

C)

breeding by the largest males

D)

fight to woo the females

315)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

, Avg: 00:47 , 60% SSC CGL 2020
A)

The largest male giraffe usually wins the battles and does most of the breeding.

B)

Giraffes' long necks are the result of repeated stretching over the years.

C)

The giraffe can eat leaves from the upper reaches of a tree where other animals cannot reach.

D)

A giraffe’s hind-legs are longer than its fore-legs and help it to bend.

316)

Giraffe’s feeding is faster when it feeds with its neck:

, Avg: 00:44 , 85% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Bent

B)

elongated

C)

straight

D)

entangled

317)

Match the words with their meanings.


a. forage           1. hit


b. stretch           2. search


c. whack            3. draw out

, Avg: 01:39 , 40% SSC CGL 2020
A)

a-3, b-2, c-1

B)

a-2, b-3, c-1

C)

a-2, b-1, c-3

D)

a-1, b-3, c-2

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


The Celts who lived in Britain before the Roman invasion of 43 AD could be said to have created the first towns. Celts in southern England lived in hill forts, which were quite large settlements. (Some probably had thousands of inhabitants). They were places of trade, where people bought and sold goods and also places where craftsmen worked. The Romans called them oppida. However, the Romans created the first settlements that were undoubtedly towns. Roman towns were usually laid out in a grid pattern. In the centre was the forum or market place. It was lined with public buildings. Life in Roman towns was highly civilized with public baths and temples. From the 5th century Angles, Saxons and Jutes invaded England. At first, the invaders avoided living in towns. However, as trade grew some towns grew up. London revived by the 7th century (although the Saxon town was, at first, outside the walls of the old Roman town). Southampton was founded at the end of the 7th century. Hereford was founded in the 8th century. Furthermore, Ipswich grew up in the 8th century and York revived. However, towns were rare in Saxon England until the late 9th century. At that time, Alfred the Great created a network of fortified settlements across his kingdom called ‘burhs’. In the event of a Danish attack, men could gather in the local burh. However, burhs were more than forts. They were also market towns. Some burhs were started from scratch but many were created out of the ruins of old Roman towns. Places like Winchester rose, phoenix-like, from the ashes of history. The thing that would strike us most about medieval towns would be their small size. Winchester, the capital of England, probably had about 8,000 people. At that time a 'large' town, like Lincoln or Dublin had about 4,000 or 5,000 inhabitants and a 'medium sized' town, like Colchester had about 2,500 people. Many towns were much smaller. However, during the 12th and 13th centuries most towns grew much larger. Furthermore, many new towns were created across Britain. Trade and commerce were increasing and there was a need for new towns. Some were created from existing villages but some were created from scratch. In those days you could create a town simply by starting a market. There were few shops so if you wished to buy or sell anything you had to go to a market. Once one was up and running, craftsmen and merchants would come to live in the area and a town would grow.

318)

The passage mainly talks about:

, Avg: 00:22 , 77% SSC CGL 2020
A)

the increase of trade in England

B)

the development of markets in England

C)

the early life in England

D)

the history of towns in England

319)

When was Southampton founded?

, Avg: 00:24 , 95% SSC CGL 2020
A)

in the 8th century

B)

in the 9th century

C)

in the 10th century

D)

in the 11th century

E)

in the 7th century

320)

“At first, the invaders avoided living in towns.” Who is/are being referred to here as ‘invaders’?

, Avg: 00:31 , 87% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Celts

B)

Romans

C)

Saxons, Angles and Jutes

D)

Alfred the Great

321)

What lay in the centre of Roman towns?

, Avg: 00:41 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Market places

B)

Residences

C)

Temples

D)

Baths

322)

Which of the following was the capital of England during medieval times?

, Avg: 01:14 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Dublin

B)

London

C)

Colchester

D)

Winchester

323)

“Some were created from scratch.” The towns which started from scratch were created by first:

, Avg: 00:14 , 16% SSC CGL 2020
A)

establishing a settlement

B)

building houses

C)

starting a market

D)

building a fort

324)

Who were the first creators of towns in England?

, Avg: 00:36 , 22% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Angles

B)

Romans

C)

Saxons

D)

Celts

325)

The hill forts of Celts were called:

, Avg: 00:24 , 70% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Oppida

B)

Burhs

C)

Centres

D)

Forums

326)

Alfred the Great created fortified settlements across his kingdom mainly because:

, Avg: 00:26 , 85% SSC CGL 2020
A)

people could live there

B)

merchants could come and sell their goods there

C)

they provided shelter from Danish attacks

D)

craftsmen could craft their artefacts there

327)

Match the words with their meaning.


a. founded                1. protected


b. declined                2. created


c. fortified                  3. dwindled

, Avg: 00:26 , 88% SSC CGL 2020
A)

a-1, b-3, c-2

B)

a-2, b-3, c-1

C)

a-3, b-2, c-1

D)

a-2, b-1, c-3

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.


Since September, at least 25 people have died and thousands have been made homeless. Every state and territory in Australia has experienced fires this summer. But the biggest fires burn along stretches of the eastern and southern coast, where most of the population lives. This includes areas around Sydney and Adelaide. More than 6.3 million hectares (63,000 sq km or 15.6 million acres) have been burned so far – one hectare is roughly the size of a sports field. To put that in perspective, around 800,000 hectares were engulfed in a bush fire in 2018 in California. Australia has always experienced bushfires – it has a "fire season". But this year they are a lot worse than normal. Fires are usually caused by lightning strikes or accidentally by a spark – but some fires are also started deliberately. This year, a natural weather phenomenon known as the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole’ has meant a hot, dry spell across the country. This year, Australia twice set a new temperature record: an average maximum of 41.9°C was recorded on 18 December. That comes on top of a long period of drought. Scientists have long warned that this hotter, drier climate will contribute to fires becoming more frequent and more intense. The more extreme weather patterns and higher temperatures increase the risk of bushfires and allow them to spread faster and wider. Fire fighters are spraying water and fire retardant from planes and helicopters as well as from the ground. But fighting bush fires is extremely difficult and often authorities have to focus on just stopping the spread, rather than putting the fire out. The spread can for instance be best contained by digging earth boundaries to stop the flames from spreading. The priority is saving lives. Professional fire fighters are the first in line to battle the flames, but they are outnumbered by the thousands of volunteers. Three of them have died. There's also help coming from abroad: the US, Canada and New Zealand have sent fire fighters to help. Australia's police, military and navy are involved in rescue and evacuation efforts. While people can flee the fires and are being evacuated if need be, the flames are devastating wildlife in the affected areas. One study estimated that half a billion animals have died in New South Wales alone. Zookeepers take animals home to save them from fire, but the fires don't only kill animals directly, they also destroy the habitat, leaving the survivors vulnerable even when the fires have gone. So the true scale of loss isn't yet clear. Experts say more than 100,000 cows and sheep may also have been lost, which is devastating for farmers. Each state runs its own emergency operation, but Prime Minister Scott Morrison has promised better funding for fire-fighting and payouts for volunteer fire fighters, and an additional A$2billion ($1.4billion; £1billion) for the recovery. But the national government has come under strong criticism from its opponents that it has not been doing enough against climate change. The country is one of the world's biggest per capita greenhouse gas emitters but under international agreements it has committed itself to reduction targets.

328)

Where did the biggest fires burn in Australia?

, Avg: 00:33 , 66% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Along the eastern and southern coasts

B)

Along the western and southern coasts

C)

Along the eastern and northern coasts

D)

Along the western and northern coasts

329)

The spread of fire can be contained effectively by:

, Avg: 00:18 , 70% SSC CGL 2020
A)

spraying fire retardant from the ground

B)

digging earth boundaries

C)

spraying fire retardant from the air

D)

spraying the forests with water

330)

The opposition in Australia is criticising the government for:

, Avg: 01:06 , 66% SSC CGL 2020
A)

not fighting the bush fires

B)

not allotting enough funds for firefighting

C)

not giving enough compensation to the deceased

D)

not doing enough against the climate change

331)

Which statement is NOT true according to the passage?

, Avg: 00:04 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Zookeepers take animals home to save them from fire.

B)

The volunteers outnumber the professional fire fighters in Australia.

C)

Australia is one of the world's biggest per capita greenhouse gas emitters.

D)

Around 800,000 hectares have been destroyed due to a bush fire in Australia.

332)

It can be inferred from the passage that this year’s fire in Australia is mostly a result of:

, Avg: 00:32 , 66% SSC CGL 2020
A)

a lightning strike

B)

an accidental spark in the jungle

C)

a result of an extraordinarily hot and dry spell

D)

a deliberate attempt to put the forests on fire

333)

The passage is mainly about:

, Avg: 00:47 , 57% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Australia’s struggle with bush fires

B)

how the bush fires occur in Australia

C)

the government’s role in dealing with the bushfire

D)

the loss of wildlife due to bush fires

334)

“Some fires are also started deliberately”. ‘Deliberately’ here means:

, Avg: 00:16 , 66% SSC CGL 2020
A)

inadvertently

B)

accidentally

C)

unknowingly

D)

purposely

335)

Which of the following countries has NOT sent help for firefighting?

, Avg: 00:16 , 66% SSC CGL 2020
A)

The US

B)

Canada

C)

New Zealand

D)

China

336)

What is the long lasting damage that the bush fires have caused to the wildlife in Australia?

, Avg: 00:43 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

The fires have not only killed animals directly, but also destroyed their habitat.

B)

Many animals in the zoos have been killed.

C)

Half a billion animals have died in New South Wales alone.

D)

More than 100,000 cows and sheep may have been lost.

337)

Authorities have to focus on just stopping the spread, rather than putting the fire out.” This means that the authorities:

, Avg: 00:21 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

want only to slow down the spread of fire

B)

want to put out the fires once and for all

C)

do not want to put the fires out

D)

want to stop the fires from spreading first and then put them out

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


Her name was Sulekha, but since her childhood everyone had been calling her Bholi, the simpleton. She was the fourth daughter of Ramlal. When she was ten months old, she had fallen off the cot on her head and perhaps it had damaged some part of her brain. That was why she remained a backward child and came to be known as Bholi, the simpleton. At birth, the child was very fair and pretty. But when she was two years old, she had an attack of smallpox. Only the eyes were saved, but the entire body was permanently disfigured by deep black pockmarks. Little Sulekha could not speak till she was five as she was a slow learner, and when at last she learnt to speak, she stammered. The other children often made fun of her and mimicked her. As a result, she talked very little. Ramlal had seven children — three sons and four daughters, and the youngest of them was Bholi. It was a prosperous farmer’s household and there was plenty to eat and drink. All the children except Bholi were healthy and strong. The sons had been sent to the city to study in schools and later in colleges. Of the daughters, Radha, the eldest, had already been married. The second daughter Mangla’s marriage had also been settled, and when that was done, Ramlal would think of the third, Champa. They were good-looking, healthy girls, and it was not difficult to find bridegrooms for them. But Ramlal was worried about Bholi. She had neither good looks nor intelligence. From her very childhood Bholi was neglected at home. She was seven years old when Mangla was married. The same year a primary school for girls was opened in their village. The Tehsildar sahib came to perform its opening ceremony. He said to Ramlal, “As a revenue official you are the representative of the government in the village and so you must set an example to the villagers. You must send your daughters to school.” That night when Ramlal consulted his wife, she cried, “Are you crazy? If girls go to school, who will marry them?” But Ramlal had not the courage to disobey the Tehsildar. At last his wife said, “I will tell you what to do. Send Bholi to school. As it is, there is little chance of her getting married, with her ugly face and lack of sense. Let the teachers at school worry about her.”

338)

Given below are four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order.


A. However, Yusuf comforted himself by imagining the hotel food in store for him the next day.


B. First, Yusuf’s stomach was occupied by excitement.


C. It was difficult to eat dinner that night.


D. Secondly, mother was on one of her health trips and had prepared sprouted beans and yoghurt.

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

ABCD

B)

DCBA

C)

DCAB

D)

CBDA

339)

At what age did Sulekha damage her brain?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Ten months

B)

Ten years

C)

Two years

D)

Two months

340)

What did the small pox attack do to Sulekha?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

It damaged her speech.

B)

It made her look ugly.

C)

It damaged her eyes.

D)

It made her dull.

341)

Sulekha came to be called Bholi because she was:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

fair and pretty

B)

healthy and strong

C)

the youngest daughter

D)

not very intelligent

342)

Why was Ramlal worried about Bholi?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

She was not willing to get educated.

B)

She was too old to get married.

C)

It would be difficult to arrange her marriage.

D)

It was difficult to comprehend her speech.

343)

Which of these statements is NOT true about Bholi?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

She was neglected by her family.

B)

She was a simpleton

C)

She was healthy and strong.

D)

She was seven when her eldest sister got married.

344)

How was Ramlal expected to set an example for the villagers?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

By sending his daughters to school

B)

By treating Bholi as an equal

C)

By marrying off his daughters at an early age

D)

By sending his sons to school

345)

Who was invited to inaugurate the girls’ school?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Tehsildar

B)

Revenue official

C)

Village head

D)

School Headmaster

346)

Bholi’s mother agreed to send her to school because:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

she wanted to educate Bholi

B)

she cared for Bholi’s well-being

C)

Bholi was neglected at home

D)

she wanted to wash her hands off Bholi

347)

‘Backward child’ in the passage means:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

physically challenged

B)

mentally challenged

C)

belonging to a poor family

D)

belonging to an underprivileged community

348)

The word ‘disfigured’ suggests that Bholi’s looks were:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

preserved

B)

improved

C)

impaired

D)

enhanced

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


Santiniketan embodies Rabindranath Tagore’s vision of a place of learning that is unfettered by religious and regional barriers. Established in 1863 with the aim of helping education go beyond the confines of the classroom, Santiniketan grew into the Visva Bharati University in 1921, attracting some of the most creative minds in the country. He developed a curriculum that was a unique blend of art, human values and cultural interchange. Even today, in every step, in every brick and in every tree at Santiniketan, one can still feel his presence, his passion, his dedication and his pride in the institution. In 1862, Maharishi Debendranath Tagore, father of Rabindranath, was taking a boat ride through Birbhum, the westernmost corner of Bengal, when he came across a landscape that struck him as the perfect place for meditation.He bought the large tract of land and built a small house and planted some saplings around it. Debendranath Tagore decided to call the place Santiniketan, or the ‘abode of peace’, because of the serenity it brought to his soul. In 1863, he turned it into a spiritual centre where people from all religions, castes and creeds came and participated in meditation.


In the years that followed, Debendranath’s son Rabindranath went on to become one of the most formidable literary forces India has ever produced. He wrote in all literary genres but he was first and foremost a poet. As one of the earliest educators to think in terms of the global village, he envisioned an education that was deeply rooted in one’s immediate surroundings but connected to the cultures of the wider world.


Located in the heart of nature, the school aimed to combine education with a sense of obligation towards the larger civic community. Blending the best of western and traditional eastern systems of education, the curriculum revolved organically around nature with classes being held in the open air. Tagore wanted his students to feel free despite being in the formal learning environment of a school, because he himself had dropped out of school when he found himself unable to think and felt claustrophobic within the four walls of a classroom. Nature walks and excursions were a part of the curriculum, special attention was paid to natural phenomena and students were encouraged to follow the life cycles of insects, birds and plants.


The rural paradise of Santiniketan, Tagore’s erstwhile home, has become a thriving centre of art, education and internationalism over the years.

349)

The curriculum designed for Santiniketan was a blend of:

, Avg: 00:27 , 44% SSC CGL 2020
A)

western education and village practices

B)

spiritual and religious exchange

C)

human values, art and culture

D)

science and religion

350)

Why did Rabindranath drop out of school?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

He found the curriculum too tough.

B)

He felt stifled within the classroom.

C)

He wanted a formal learning environment.

D)

He was not interested in studies.

351)

What does the name Santiniketan mean?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Abode of love

B)

Abode of peace

C)

Abode of learning

D)

Abode of culture

352)

2 When did Santiniketan grow into a university?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

In 1863

B)

In 1922

C)

In 1862

D)

In 1921

353)

Which of these statements about Santiniketan is NOT true?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Santiniketan grew into Visva Bharati university.

B)

Santiniketan is located in the western most part of Bengal.

C)

At Santiniketan, classes were held in the open air.

D)

Santiniketan was set up by Rabindranath Tagore.

354)

Tagore’s ‘erstwhile’ home means:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

former home

B)

rural retreat

C)

serene abode

D)

magnificent house

355)

What did Santiniketan initially serve as?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

A classroom

B)

A holiday resort

C)

A summer house

D)

A spiritual centre

356)

The word ‘unfettered’ in the text suggests:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

free from barriers

B)

outside the classroom

C)

restricted by regional differences

D)

bound by religious beliefs

357)

With what aim was Santiniketan established?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

To nurture plants, birds and insects

B)

To attract the most creative minds

C)

To encourage education outside the classroom

D)

To make it the perfect place for meditation

358)

Rabindranath was a ‘formidable’ literary force. This implies he was:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

an avid reader of books

B)

a powerful writer

C)

a wealthy landowner

D)

an orthodox educationist

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


Chanhudaro was a tiny settlement (less than 7 hectares) as compared to Mohenjodaro (125 hectares), almost exclusively devoted to craft production, including bead-making, shellcutting, metal-working, seal-making and weight-making. The variety of materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian (of a beautiful red colour), jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay. Some beads were made of two or more stones, cemented together, some of stone with gold caps. The shapes were numerous – disc shaped, cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped, segmented. Some were decorated by incising or painting, and some had designs etched onto them. Techniques for making beads differed according to the material. Steatite, a very soft stone, was easily worked. Some beads were moulded out of a paste made with steatite powder. This permitted making a variety of shapes, unlike the geometrical forms made out of harder stones. How the steatite micro bead was made remains a puzzle for archaeologists studying ancient technology. Archaeologists’ experiments have revealed that the red colour of carnelian was obtained by firing the yellowish raw material and beads at various stages of production. Nodules were chipped into rough shapes, and then finely flaked into the final form. Grinding, polishing and finally drilling completed the process. Specialised drills have been found at Chanhudaro, Lothal and more recently at Dholavira. Nageshwar and Balakot, both settlements are near the coast. These were specialised centres for making shell objects – including bangles, ladles and inlay – which were taken to other settlements. Similarly, it is likely that finished products (such as beads) from Chanhudaro and Lothal were taken to the large urban centres such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa.

359)

Shell objects were mostly made at Nageshwar and Balakot because:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

the women loved to wear bangles made of shells

B)

shells were readily available in these coastal areas

C)

specialised drills were found here

D)

shells were transported here from Lothal

360)

According to the text, which of these crafts was Not practisedin Chanhudaro?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Weight making

B)

Seal making

C)

Metal cutting

D)

Paper making

361)

Which is the final process in the production of beads?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Polishing

B)

Drilling

C)

Grinding

D)

Chipping

362)

Which of these statements is NOT true?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Beads were made in numerous shapes and sizes.

B)

Harappa and Mohenjodaro were large urban centres.

C)

Chanhudaro was exclusively devoted to craft production.

D)

Carnelian is a beautiful bluish stone.

363)

Which of these stones is very soft and easy to mould?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Quartz

B)

Steatite

C)

Crystal

D)

jasper

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in ‘The Republic’ (his most important work on philosophy and political theory, written around 360 B.C.). In it, he advocates some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers' care and raising them as wards of the state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able. He believed that education should be holistic, including facts, skills, physical discipline, music and art. Plato believed that talent and intelligence is not distributed genetically and thus is be found in children born to all classes, although his proposed system of selective public education for an educated minority of the population does not really follow a democratic model. Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. He proposed that teachers lead their students systematically, and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits, unlike Socrates' emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas. He emphasized the balancing of the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects taught, among which he explicitly mentions reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical education, literature, history, and a wide range of sciences, as well as play, which he also considered important.

364)

Which of these statements is NOT true?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Socrates encouraged the listeners to come up with original ideas.

B)

The Republic was written around 360 A.D.

C)

Socrates considered music and physical education as important aspects of learning.

D)

Plato’s methods of education can be called ‘extreme’.

365)

Children who are imparted highest education, would be responsible for:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

developing talent and skills

B)

inculcating good habits

C)

guarding the city

D)

teaching the illiterate

366)

What tool does Aristotle advocate to teachers to develop good habits in students?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Writing

B)

Reading

C)

Questioning

D)

Repetition

367)

Aristotle believed that virtuous citizens could be produced by cultivating:

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

art and music

B)

mathematics and science

C)

theoretical aspects of education

D)

habit and reason

368)

Which of these methods is NOT advocated in ‘The Republic’?

, 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Differentiating children based on castes

B)

Bringing up children under state guardianship

C)

Imparting similar education to all children

D)

Keeping children away from mothers

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Cambridge was my metaphor for England, and it was strange that when I left it had become altogether something else, because I had met Stephen Hawking there. It was on a walking tour through Cambridge that the guide mentioned Stephen Hawking, ‘poor man, who is quite disabled now, though he is a worthy successor to Isaac Newton, whose chair he has at the university.’ And I started, because I had quite forgotten that this most brilliant and completely paralysed astrophysicist, (scholar of astrophysics — branch of physics dealing with stars, planets, etc.) the author of A Brief History of Time, one of the biggest best-sellers ever, lived here. When the walking tour was done, I rushed to a phone booth and, almost tearing the cord so it could reach me outside, phoned Stephen Hawking’s house. There was his assistant on the line and I told him I had come in a wheelchair from India (perhaps he thought I had propelled myself all the way) to write about my travels in Britain. I had to see Professor Hawking — even ten minutes would do. “Half an hour,” he said. “From three-thirty to four.” And suddenly I felt weak all over. Growing up disabled, you get fed up with people asking you to be brave, as if you have a courage account on which you are too lazy to draw a cheque. The only thing that makes you stronger is seeing somebody like you, achieving something huge. Then you know how much is possible and you reach out further than you ever thought you could. “I haven’t been brave,” said his disembodied computer-voice, the next afternoon. “I’ve had no choice.” Surely, I wanted to say, living creatively with the reality of his disintegrating body was a choice? But I kept quiet, because I felt guilty every time I spoke to him, forcing him to respond. There he was, tapping at the little switch in his hand, trying to find the words on his computer with the only bit of movement left to him, his long, pale fingers. Every so often, his eyes would shut in frustrated exhaustion. And sitting opposite him I could feel his anguish, the mind buoyant with thoughts that came out in frozen phrases and sentences stiff as corpses.

369)

Astrophysics deals with:

, Avg: 00:03 , 95% SSC CGL 2020
A)

stars and planets

B)

creative writing

C)

computers

D)

diseases

370)

The narrator felt the professor’s anguish in:

, Avg: 01:21 , 74% SSC CGL 2020
A)

his effort to put up a brave front

B)

the extreme exhaustion in his face

C)

the loss of movement in his legs

D)

his inability to express his thoughts in words

371)

Complete the sentence to make it true. The narrator:

, Avg: 01:02 , 24% SSC CGL 2020
A)

is the author of A Brief History of Time

B)

dislikes people asking him to be brave

C)

came to Britain to study astrophysics

D)

met Stephen Hawking accidently

372)

The narrator pulled the telephone cord outside the phone booth because he was:

, Avg: 01:30 , 40% SSC CGL 2020
A)

not able to hear clearly in the booth

B)

desperate to get an appointment with Stephen Hawking

C)

unable to enter the booth on a wheelchair

D)

eager to call Stephen Hawking’s home

373)

Which of these facts is NOT true about Stephen Hawking?

, Avg: 01:58 , 51% SSC CGL 2020
A)

A worthy contemporary of Newton

B)

A professor at Cambridge

C)

A brilliant astrophysicist

D)

A paralysed man

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.

 The drainage systems of India are mainly controlled by the broad relief features of the subcontinent. Accordingly, the Indian rivers are divided into two major groups: the Himalayan rivers; and the Peninsular rivers. Apart from originating from the two major physiographic regions of India, the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers are different from each other in many ways. Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains. The major Himalayan rivers are the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These rivers are long, and are joined by many large and important tributaries. A river along with its tributaries may be called a river system. The two major Himalayan rivers, the Indus and the Brahmaputra originate from the north of the mountain ranges. They cut through the mountains making gorges in the upper course. The perennial Himalayan rivers have long courses from their source to the sea. They perform intensive erosional activity in their upper courses and carry huge loads of silt and sand with their swift current. In the middle and the lower courses, these rivers form meanders, oxbow lakes, levees and many other depositional features in their floodplains as their speed slackens. They also have well developed deltas. A large number of the Peninsular rivers like the Godavari, Kaveri and Krishna are seasonal, as their flow is dependent on rainfall. During the dry season when it doesn’t rain, even the large rivers have reduced flow of water in their channels. The Peninsular rivers have shorter and shallower courses as compared to their Himalayan counterparts. However, some of them originate in the central highlands and flow towards the west. Most of the rivers of peninsular India originate in the Western Ghats and flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

374)

Which of these statements is NOT true about perennial rivers?

, Avg: 01:54 , 50% SSC CGL 2020
A)

They have a very short dry season.

B)

They cover very long distances till they reach the sea.

C)

Most of them originate in the Himalayas.

D)

They have well developed deltas.

375)

A river along with its tributaries may be called a:

, Avg: 00:09 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

highland

B)

river system

C)

peninsula

D)

flood plain

376)

Erosional activity takes place in the upper course of the river because of:

, Avg: 00:44 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

the reduced flow of water

B)

huge loads of silt and sand

C)

the great speed of water

D)

the presence of flood plains

377)

‘Perennial’ rivers mean:

, Avg: 00:10 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

receiving water from the rains

B)

those that originate in the mountains

C)

rivers with a long course

D)

full of water throughout the year

378)

Which of these is NOT a depositional feature found in the lower course of a river?

, Avg: 00:47 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

levee

B)

Gorge

C)

Oxbow lake

D)

Meander

379)

‘Slackened speed’ suggests:

, Avg: 00:56 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

average speed

B)

tremendous speed

C)

maximum speed

D)

reduced speed

380)

The drainage systems of India are controlled by:

, Avg: 00:52 , 50% SSC CGL 2020
A)

relief features

B)

erosional activity

C)

tributaries of rivers

D)

depositional features

381)

Himalayan rivers are never dry because they:

, Avg: 00:10 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

have a shorter and shallower course

B)

are dependent on rainfall only

C)

are fed by glaciers and rainfall

D)

originate in the Western Ghats

382)

Which of these is NOT a Himalayan river?

, Avg: 00:37 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Indus

B)

Godavari

C)

Ganga

D)

Brahmaputra

383)

The word ‘seasonal’ rivers in the passage means:

, Avg: 00:18 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

rivers that never go dry in any season

B)

rivers whose flow is dependent upon rainfall

C)

rivers that change their course in every season

D)

rivers that flood in every season

The Roman Empire covered a vast stretch of territory that included most of Europe as we know it today and a large part of the Fertile Crescent and North Africa. The Roman empire embraced a wealth of local cultures and languages; that women had a stronger legal position then than they do in many countries today; but also that much of the economy was run on slave labour, denying freedom to substantial numbers of persons. From the fifth century onwards, the empire fell apart in the west but remained intact and exceptionally prosperous in its eastern half. Roman historians have a rich collection of sources to go on, which we can broadly divide into three groups: (a) texts, (b) documents and (c) material remains. Textual sources include letters, speeches, sermons, laws, and histories of the period written by contemporaries. These were usually called ‘Annals’ because the narrative was constructed on a year-by-year basis. Documentary sources include mainly inscriptions and papyri. Inscriptions were usually cut on stone, so a large number survive, in both Greek and Latin. The ‘papyrus’ was a reedlike plant that grew along the banks of the Nile in Egypt and was processed to produce sheets of writing material that was very widely used in everyday life. Thousands of contracts, accounts, letters and official documents survive ‘on papyrus’ and have been published by scholars who are called ‘papyrologists’. Material remains include a very wide assortment of items that mainly archaeologists discover (for example, through excavation and field survey), for example, buildings, monuments and other kinds of structures, pottery, coins, mosaics, even entire landscapes. Each of these sources can only tell us just so much about the past, and combining them can be a fruitful exercise, but how well this is done depends on the historian’s skill!

384)

Which of these are NOT material remains?

, Avg: 00:18 , 86% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Mosaics

B)

Monuments

C)

Coins

D)

Annals

385)

Documentary sources of the history of Roman empire include:

, Avg: 00:11 , 85% SSC CGL 2020
A)

pottery

B)

inscriptions

C)

sermons

D)

landscapes

386)

Much of the economy in the Roman empire was run on:

, Avg: 00:06 , 91% SSC CGL 2020
A)

slave labour

B)

scholars

C)

women

D)

archaeologists

387)

Who were papyrologists?

, Avg: 00:33 , 67% SSC CGL 2020
A)

People who processed papyrus into sheets

B)

Scholars who published documents

C)

Farmers who cultivated papyrus

D)

People who surveyed the reed like plants along the Nile

388)

Which of these statements is NOT true?

, Avg: 01:54 , 75% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Texts, documents and material remains were the main sources for the historians.

B)

Inscriptions were carved in Greek and Latin.

C)

Archaeologists make discoveries through excavations.

D)

The Roman empire flourished longer in the west.

The first time that Agha Shahid Ali spoke to me about his approaching death was on 25 April 2001. The conversation began routinely. I had telephoned to remind him that we had been invited to a friend’s house for lunch. Although he had been under treatment for cancer for some fourteen months, Shahid was still on his feet and perfectly lucid, except for occasional lapses of memory. I heard him thumbing through his engagement book and then suddenly he said: ‘Oh dear. I can’t see a thing.’ There was a brief pause and then he added: ‘I hope this doesn’t mean that I’m dying...’ I did not know how to respond: his voice was completely at odds with the content of what he had just said, light to the point of jocularity. I mumbled something innocuous: ‘No Shahid — of course not. You’ll be fine.’ He cut me short. In a tone of voice that was at once quizzical and direct, he said: ‘When it happens I hope you’ll write something about me.’ I was shocked into silence and a long moment passed before I could bring myself to say the things that people say on such occasions. ‘Shahid you’ll be fine; you have to be strong...’ From the window of my study I could see a corner of the building in which he lived, some eight blocks away. It was just a few months since he moved there: he had been living a few miles away, in Manhattan, when he had a sudden blackout in February 2000. After tests revealed that he had a malignant brain tumour, he decided to move to Brooklyn, to be close to his youngest sister, Sameetah, who teaches at the Pratt Institute—a few blocks away from the street where I live. Shahid ignored my reassurances. He began to laugh and it was then that I realised that he was dead serious. I understood that he was entrusting me with a quite specific charge: he wanted me to remember him not through the spoken recitatives of memory and friendship, but through the written word. He knew that my instincts would have led me to search for reasons to avoid writing about his death: I would have told myself that I was not a poet; that our friendship was of recent date; that there were many others who knew him much better and would be writing from greater understanding and knowledge. All this Shahid had guessed and he had decided to shut off those routes while there was still time. ‘You must write about me.’ Finally, I said: ‘Shahid, I will: I’ll do the best I can.’

389)

What disease was Shahid Ali suffering from?

, Avg: 00:30 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Brain tumour

B)

Blood cancer

C)

Loss of memory

D)

Blindness

390)

What kind of person was Shahid Ali?

, Avg: 02:37 , 25% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Forgetful

B)

Full of life

C)

Dangerous

D)

Depressed

391)

What made Shahid think his end was near?

, Avg: 00:31 , 25% SSC CGL 2020
A)

He was unable to think clearly.

B)

He suddenly couldn’t see anything.

C)

He was unable to stand on his feet.

D)

He couldn’t utter a word.

392)

The narrator was reluctant to write about Shahid because:

, Avg: 00:07 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

the subject did not interest him

B)

he didn’t have enough time

C)

he wouldn’t be paid for it

D)

it would be emotionally tough for him

393)

Shahid had moved to Brooklyn to:

, Avg: 00:35 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

get treatment for cancer

B)

fulfil certain engagements

C)

teach at Pratt Institute

D)

be close to his youngest sister

394)

Why had the narrator called Shahid Ali?

, Avg: 00:30 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

To remind him about a lunch invitation

B)

To cheer him up in his depression

C)

To enquire about his health

D)

To give him an important task

395)

Which of these was NOT an excuse that the narrator thought of to decline Shahid’s request?

, Avg: 01:09 , 33% SSC CGL 2020
A)

That others knew Shahid better

B)

That their friendship was quite recent

C)

That he was too busy

D)

That he was not a poet

396)

Shahid’s voice was full of ‘jocularity’. This means it was:

, Avg: 00:41 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

humorous

B)

bitter

C)

melodious

D)

sorrowful

397)

Shahid was perfectly ‘lucid’. This suggests he was:

, Avg: 00:04 , 25% SSC CGL 2020
A)

confused

B)

in a delirium

C)

speaking coherently

D)

not intelligible

398)

What did Shahid request the narrator to do?

, Avg: 00:29 , 100% SSC CGL 2020
A)

Write about him after his death

B)

Take him along for lunch at their friend’s place

C)

Move to his house in Manhattan

D)

Be strong and bear the loss bravely

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